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1. 
Blood pressure measured in the office requires an immediate referral to the ER if it is above 175.
A.
true
B.
false
2. 
If a patient is presenting with Rust's sign, ensure they can complete normal ranges of motion before deciding if radiographs are needed.
A.
true
B.
false
3. 
COPD is most common among smokers, and is a term used to describe both sufferers of emphysema and _____________
A.
chronic bronchitis
B.
congestive heart failure
C.
asthma
D.
pulmonary edema
4. 
Hepatitis most frequently occurs due to _______________.
A.
chronic alcoholism
B.
viral infection
C.
bacterial infection
D.
drug overdose
5. 
Multiple Myeloma is often detected due to a finding of_______________.
A.
rain drop skull
B.
periosteal burst pattern
C.
pain worse mid day
D.
weight loss in young child
6. 
_________ causes purple/red lesions that are abnormal in those with healthy immune function.
A.
SLE
B.
Lyme's Disease
C.
Kaposi's sarcoma
7. 
Palpation of lymph nodes that are non-tender, matted and fixed indicates:
A.
Benign
B.
Malignant
8. 
In the Lymph exam: Swollen and tender, mobile nodes are indicative of possible ___________ tumor.
A.
Benign
B.
Malignant
9. 
Loss of lateral 1/3 of the eyebrow indicates ______________________.
A.
hoshimotos
B.
Seborrhea and Myxedema
C.
Horner’s
D.
cushings
10. 
Which of the following refers to a pimple or boil on eyelid margin resulting from infection of a sebaceous gland?
A.
Chalazion
B.
Hordeolum
C.
Pinguecula
11. 
Which of the following refers to fatty plaques on nasal surface of eyelid?
A.
Xanthelasma
B.
Pinguecula
C.
Chalazion
12. 
(AKA “Prostitute’s Pupil”)
A.
Miosis
B.
Internal Opthalmoplegia
C.
Argyll Robertson
D.
Horner's
13. 
Which of the following refers to dilated pupil with ptosis and lateral deviation? Does not react to light or display accommodation. Seen in patients with multiple sclerosis
A.
Miosis
B.
Internal Opthalmoplegia
C.
Argyll Robertson
D.
Hemanopsia
14. 
_____________ is normal vision.
A.
Emmetropia
B.
Myopia
C.
Hyperopia
D.
Presbyopia
15. 
_____________ refers to loss of lens elasticity due to aging
A.
Emmetropia
B.
Myopia
C.
Hyperopia
D.
Presbyopia
16. 
________________ Tests CN II and CN III
A.
Direct light reflex
B.
Consensual light reflex
C.
Accomodation
D.
Cardinal Fields of Gaze
17. 
__________ tests CN III, IV, VI
A.
Direct light reflex
B.
Consensual light reflex
C.
Accomodation
D.
Cardinal Fields of Gaze
18. 
With what condition would the optic margins appear enlarged and blurred due to intracranial pressure?
A.
Glaucoma
B.
Papilledema
C.
Conjunctivitis
D.
Exopthalmosis
19. 
In which condition would one find small volcano disc appearance and increased intraocular pressure?
A.
Glaucoma
B.
Papilledema
C.
Conjunctivitis
D.
Exopthalmosis
20. 
What's another name for the bulging eyes seen in _______disease?
A.
Glaucoma, seen in graves disease
B.
Papilledema, seen in horner's syndrome
C.
Exopthalmosis, seen in grave's disease
D.
Glaucoma, seen in diabetes mellitus
21. 
If you find tophi on the outer ear, the patient is suffering with
A.
gout
B.
myxedema
C.
SLE
D.
webber's
22. 
The tuning fork used for vibration of possible fractures is:
A.
512
B.
128
C.
514
D.
126
23. 
In which condition would one see red membranes and yellow or green discharge?
A.
Acute Viral infection
B.
CSF leakage
C.
Acute bacterial infection
D.
Allergies
24. 
In which would one see a clear and thin discharge and pale turbinates?
A.
Acute Viral infection
B.
CSF leakage
C.
Acute Bacterial infection
D.
Allergies
25. 
Temporal arteritis is most common in those
A.
Under 40
B.
Over 60
C.
In the eigth decade
D.
in the third decade
26. 
Normal Axillary temperature is __________ while normal oral temperature is ______
A.
97.6, 98.6
B.
96.6, 98.6
C.
96, 98.6
D.
99.6, 98.6
27. 
The normal range for repiratory rate in adults is_____ and below ____ respirations per minute indicates respiratory depression and requires immediate intervention
A.
8-12, 6
B.
12-20, 8
C.
12-18, 6
D.
12-16, 8
28. 
A bluish discoloration of the skin indicative of a cardiovascular problem or hypothermia. Often seen on the nails and the lips is called:
A.
Oxygen starvation
B.
Cyanosis
C.
Pallor
D.
Ruberosis
29. 
Jaundice is a yellow tinge that may be present on the skin, nail beds, and sclera usually accompanied by ____________.Indicates a possible liver problem.
A.
Itching
B.
Pain in the abdomen
C.
Cyanosis
D.
Dry scaly skin
30. 
A 3 color progressive change from pallor to cyanosis to rubor may indicate ______disease?
A.
Raynaud's
B.
Dupuytren's
C.
Hashimoto's
D.
Wilson's
31. 
Blood outside a vessel that indicates a tendency to bleed. Vitamin C deficiency and possible leukemia. Appears as tiny purple and red dots.
A.
Eccymosis
B.
Petechia
C.
Macule
D.
spider angioma
32. 
The nail base has an angle greater than 180 degrees and may indicate hypoxia. Most common diagnosis is bronchogenic carcinoma.
A.
Paronychia
B.
Spoon nails
C.
Clubbing
D.
Splinter hemorrhages
33. 
Red or brown linear streaks in the nail beds. Indicates SBE, trichinosis, or minor trauma.
A.
Paronychia
B.
Spoon nails
C.
Clubbing
D.
Splinter hemorrhages
34. 
Which proceedure is described? The patient is supine with eyes open and the head extended off the table as the examiner provides support for the weight of the head. The examiner extends the head and moves it into rotation and lateral flexion while looking for nystagmus and other neurovascular signs. The test is repeated on the opposite side. Each position is held for 15-45 seconds. Finally, the patient's head is allowed to hang freely in extreme hyperextension off the table.
A.
Hallpike Maneuver
B.
Hautant's Test
C.
Underberg's Test
D.
Vertebrobasilar Artery Functional Maneuver
35. 
Which procedure is described?With the patient seated, the subclavian and carotid arteries are ausculated for bruits followed by palpation of the arteries for pulse assessment. If bruits are present, the test is not completed, and the test is positive. If bruits are not found, the patient rotates and hyperextends the head to each side.
A.
Hallpike Maneuver
B.
Hautant's Test
C.
Underberg's Test
D.
Vertebrobasilar Artery Functional Maneuver
36. 
An Irregular breathing that follows the pattern of: apnea slow-quick-slow, seen in brain tumors, cardiac disease, and meningitis is termed:
A.
Emphysema
B.
Eupnea
C.
Tachypnea
D.
Cheyne-Stokes
37. 
Retractions during inspiration in those with asthma and emphysema, and in children in respiratory distress are commonly seen at the rib interspaces, along with what other hallmark findings?
A.
Use of accessory muscles of breathing
B.
Flaring nares
C.
Redness of color
D.
diaphoresis
38. 
Palpation is useful for all of these but
A.
indicate areas of pain
B.
to further assess observed abnormalities
C.
to further assess respiratory excursion
D.
Detect rhonchi
39. 
have the patient repeat "99" while...
A.
palpating the chest wall with the hand
B.
palpating the abdomen with the hand
C.
auscultating the chest wall posteriorly
D.
auscultating the chest wall anteriorly
40. 
Percussion over the apicies of the lungs yeilds this tone:
A.
resonance
B.
dullness
C.
flattness
D.
hyperresonance
41. 
_____________ is best used to assess air flow through the tracheobronchial tree and to detect obstructions.
A.
Instrumentation
B.
Palpation
C.
Percussion
D.
Respiratory excursion
42. 
_____________ yields a nasal goatlike bleating.
A.
Bronchophony
B.
Egophony
C.
Whispered pectoiloquy
43. 
___________ describes the test whose positive finding is: voice sounds are louder and clearer than usual.
A.
Bronchophony
B.
Egophony
C.
Whispered pectoiloquy
44. 
Which of the following most commonly produces weight loss and a non-predictive cough?
A.
Lung metastasis
B.
Bronchogenic carcinoma
C.
pancoast tumor
45. 
The following lung lesion is detected with the apical lordotic view.
A.
Lung metastasis
B.
Bronchogenic carcinoma
C.
Pancoast tumor
D.
Pleural effusion
46. 
The human body carries about _____liters of blood.
A.
3
B.
4
C.
5
D.
7
47. 
Auscultaion at the 2nd intercostal space to the right of the sternum yields information about the:
A.
Pulmonic valves
B.
Aortic valves
C.
Tricuspid valves
48. 
Abnormal pulsations and/or sounds at the 2nd intercostal space to the left of the sternum indicate problems of the ____________valve.
A.
Pulmonic
B.
Aortic
C.
Tricuspid
D.
Mitral
49. 
Auscultation laying on the left side is the best position to hear the_____________valve.
A.
Aortic
B.
Pulmonic
C.
Mitral
D.
Tricupid
50. 
pumonary edema and nocturnal dyspnea are hallmarks of __________
A.
right CHF
B.
left CHF
51. 
Pitting edema and hepatomegaly are hallmarks of
A.
right CHF
B.
left CHF
52. 
MI is diagnosed with_______ and confirmed with ________
A.
ECG, Enzyme studies
B.
Enzyme studies, ECG
C.
ECG, Angiography
D.
ECG, Cardiography
53. 
A characteristic "click" upon auscultation of the heart suggests which pathology
A.
mitral valve prolapse
B.
mitral valve regurgitation
C.
pulomonary stenosis
D.
coartation of the aorta
54. 
Bacterial endocarditis cannot be confirmed without performing
A.
laboratory testing
B.
ECG
C.
Cardiography
D.
Stress Testing
55. 
Which condition will not yeild a resonant or hyperresonant tone upon percussion?
A.
Asthma
B.
Atelectasis
C.
Bronchitis
D.
COPD
56. 
Which condition can be detected most easily with auscultation due to a rubbing or grating sound?
A.
Pleurisy
B.
Asthma
C.
Pneumonia
D.
COPD
57. 
Which cancer is often suspected due to the presence of a meiotic pupil and a lack of sweating on 1/2 of the brow?
A.
Pancoast Tumor
B.
Bronchogenic Carcinoma
C.
Metastatic Lung Disease
D.
Parotid Tumor
58. 
Which infection results in red to grey heaptization prior to resolving?
A.
Lobar pneumococcal pneumonia
B.
friedlander's pneumonia
C.
Pneumocystis carinii
D.
cytomegalo virus
59. 
valvular stenosis results in a ____ tone that is best heard with the _____ of the stethoscope
A.
low, bell
B.
low, diaphragm
C.
high, bell
D.
high, diaphragm
60. 
Valvular regurgitation usually is detected by a ____ tone best heard with the ____ of the instrument.
A.
high, diaphragm
B.
low, diaphragm
C.
high, bell
D.
low, bell
61. 
Chest pain that is releived by _______ suggests angina pectoris and not MI. (all that apply)
A.
rest
B.
nitroglycerine
C.
aspirin
D.
opioid medications
62. 
To diagnose hypertension, elevated pressures must be measured on _____ occasions.
A.
2
B.
3
C.
4
D.
5
63. 
Troponin appears in blood tests _____ hours after an acute MI, and remains detectable for _____days.
A.
3-6, 14
B.
3-6, 21
C.
6-8, 7
D.
6-8, 14
64. 
CPK appears in the bloodstream 3-6 hours after an acute MI, peaks in ____hours and is present for ____days
A.
24-36, 3
B.
24-36, 14
C.
48-72, 14
D.
48-72, 3
65. 
You listen for _____ and you feel for _________
A.
bruits, thrills
B.
thrills, bruits
66. 
Detection of a bruit or thrill indicates that there is___________ due to pathology
A.
laminar blood flow
B.
turbulent blood flow
C.
hypertensive blood flow
D.
obstructive blood flow
67. 
A rubbing sound over the heart and timed with its beats is indicative of
A.
pericarditis
B.
endocarditis
C.
pluresy
D.
cardiac tamponade
68. 
A distant sounding heart beat upon auscultation is indicative of
A.
fluid in the pericardial sac
B.
inflammation of the heart lining
C.
inflammation of the heart muscle
D.
inflammation of the lung tissue or plura
69. 
Fluid buildup in the pericardial sac is called:
A.
cardiac tamponade
B.
pericarditis
C.
endocarditis
D.
cardiac edema