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1. 
The cathode is ___________ charged.
A.
Negatively
B.
Positively
2. 
The anode is _________ charged.
A.
Negatively
B.
Positively
3. 
Which of the following limits beam size, decreases patient dose, and increases film quality by decreasing scatter radiation?
A.
Rectification
B.
Collimation
C.
filters
D.
sheilds
4. 
Which phenomenon is caused by the distance between the body part and the film causing scatter radiation to diverge away from the film which reduces patient dose but distorts and magnifies the image?
A.
Penumbra
B.
MAS
C.
Air Gap Technique
D.
Object Film Distance
5. 
This step takes 10 minutes and involves removal of the silver halides that were not exposed to radiation or light from the emulsion while the gelatin portion of the emulsion is hardened.
A.
Wetting
B.
Drying
C.
Washing
D.
Fixing
6. 
Glutaraldehyde controls emulsion swelling and serves as a __________ in the development process.
A.
Hardener
B.
Preserver
C.
Restrainer
D.
Solvent
7. 
When a projectile electron interacts with a target nucleus which causes an x-ray to be emitted. The electron slows down and changes its direction (this is called “braking” radiation).
A.
Characteristic Radiation
B.
Classical Scatter (Film Fog – low energy – X-ray)
C.
Bremsstrahlung Radiation
D.
Compton Effect (most form of scatter)
8. 
Also known as radiographic noise, this refers to the random nature in which x-rays interact with the image receptor. If x-rays are produced with just a few photons, the radiographic noise will be higher. A granular or spotty, non-uniformity of the x-ray image results. The use of high MAS, low KVP, and slower image receptors reduce radiographic noise.
A.
Classical Scatter (Film Fog – low energy – X-ray)
B.
Compton Effect (most form of scatter)
C.
Photoelectric Effect
D.
Quantum Mottle
9. 
Fast screens _______quantum mottle.
A.
increase
B.
decrease
C.
do not change
10. 
Which of the following is best at visualizing soft tissue changes as seen in a meniscus, disc, or ligament?
A.
CT
B.
MRI
C.
Bone Scan
11. 
Which of the following uses an injection of radioactive substance to visualize early metastasis to bone?
A.
CT
B.
MRI
C.
Bone Scan
12. 
Which is used to see the foramen magnum?
A.
Anterior Oblique
B.
Caldwell view
C.
Water’s view
D.
Towne's View
13. 
Which is used to see the frontal sinus?
A.
Anterior Oblique
B.
Caldwell view
C.
Water’s view
D.
Towne's View
14. 
Which is seen at the vertebral end plate epiphysis?
A.
Scheuermann’s
B.
Legg Calve Perthes
C.
Sever’s
D.
Erieberg’s
15. 
Which affects the articular surface of the medial femoral condyle?
A.
Osgood Schlatter’s
B.
Scheuermann’s
C.
Osteochondritis Dessicans
D.
Sever’s
16. 
Which of the following is AKA pseudospondylolisthesis and is secondary to long standing degenerative arthritis of the lumbar facets and discovertebral joints without a pars separation?
A.
Type IV Traumatic
B.
Type III: Degenerative
C.
Type V Pathologic
D.
Type II Isthmic
17. 
Which of the following occurs in conjunction with generalized or localized bone disease such as Paget’s or metastasis?
A.
Type IV Traumatic
B.
Type III: Degenerative
C.
Type V Pathologic
D.
Type II Isthmic
18. 
Which of the following lines of mensuration uses landmarks which fall on a line drawn from the nasion to the center of the sella turcica and one drawn from the basion (anterior foramen magnum) to the center of the sella turcica?
A.
McGregor’s Line
B.
Chamberlain’s Line
C.
Basilar Angle (Martin’s Basilar Angle)
D.
George’s Line
19. 
Which of the following lines uses as landmarks the posterior body margins?
A.
McGregor’s Line
B.
Chamberlain’s Line
C.
Basilar Angle (Martin’s Basilar Angle)
D.
George’s Line
20. 
Which of the following is defined as a fracture of the 4th and 5th metacarpal?
A.
Bar Room
B.
Bedroom
C.
Bennett's
D.
Boxer's
21. 
Which of the following is defined as a fracture of any phalanx of the foot (especially the 1st or 5th digits) and is caused by direct blow?
A.
Bar Room
B.
Bedroom
C.
Bennett's
D.
Boxer's
22. 
Which is a fracture of the growth plate, metaphysis, and epiphysis
A.
Type 1
B.
Type II
C.
Type III
D.
Type IV
23. 
Which is a fracture of the growth plate and metaphysis (most common)?
A.
Type 1
B.
Type II
C.
Type III
D.
Type IV
24. 
Which scoliosis type can be postural or compensatory?
A.
Congenital
B.
Structural
C.
Non-structural
D.
Neuromuscular
25. 
Which scoliosis type is found in cases of polio, cerebral palsy, or muscular dystrophy?
A.
Congenital
B.
Structural
C.
Non-structural
D.
Neuromuscular
26. 
In which of the following would one see a normal anterior vertebral margin and hypocalcemia?
A.
Blastic Mets
B.
Paget's
C.
Hodgkin's
D.
Lytic Mets
27. 
In which of the following is there anterior scalloping and a normal bone panel?
A.
Blastic Mets
B.
Paget's
C.
Hodgkin's
D.
Lytic Mets
28. 
An ivory white vertebra that appears larger than surrounding vertebrae with anterior squaring is suggestive of:
A.
Pagets
B.
Blastic Mets
C.
Hodgkins
29. 
Select the image of an ivory white vertebra that is most likely due to paget's disease
A.
B.
C.
30. 
Identify Banhart's fracture
A.
B.
C.
D.
31. 
Identify Bar room fracture
A.
B.
C.
D.
32. 
Identify teardrop fracture
A.
B.
C.
D.
33. 
Identify Pott's fracture
A.
B.
C.
D.
34. 
Identify Monteggia fracture
A.
B.
C.
D.
35. 
Identify Galeazzi fracture
A.
B.
C.
D.
36. 
Identify greenstick fracture
A.
B.
C.
D.
37. 
Identify Bennett's fracture
A.
B.
C.
D.
38. 
identify chaimberlain's line
A.
B.
C.
D.
39. 
identify mcgregors line
A.
B.
C.
D.
40. 
identify macrae's line
A.
B.
C.
D.
41. 
Identify Macnab's line
A.
B.
C.
D.
42. 
Identify Kohler's line
A.
B.
C.
D.
43. 
Identify townes view
A.
B.
C.
D.
44. 
Identify Water's view
A.
B.
C.
D.
45. 
Identify Apical lordotic
A.
B.
C.
D.
46. 
Identify PA chest
A.
B.
C.
D.
47. 
Identify swimmers
A.
B.
C.
D.