Which of the following is a gram negative diplococcus?
A.
Chlamydia
B.
Gonorrhea
C.
Syphilis
D.
Trichomoniasis
2.
Which produces a greenish, yellow, bubbly discharge?
A.
Chlamydia
B.
Gonorrhea
C.
Syphilis
D.
Trichomoniasis
3.
Which is caused by Staph or Strep (usually Strep) and causes lesions on the face and hands?
A.
Impetigo
B.
Furuncles
C.
koplick spots
D.
malar rash
4.
Which causes a pitted, erythematous lesion of ulcers in the mouth (chancer sore)?
A.
Impetigo
B.
Furuncles
C.
Aphthous Stomatitis
D.
angular stomatitis
5.
Which is caused by staph-infected hair follicles?
A.
Impetigo
B.
Furuncles
C.
Aphthous Stomatitis
D.
Herpes Zoster
6.
Which is a small, flat lesion less than 0.5 cm?
A.
Papule
B.
Macule
C.
Vesicle
D.
Pustule
7.
Which is a small, pus-filled lesion less than 0.5 cm filled?
A.
Papule
B.
Macule
C.
Vesicle
D.
Pustule
8.
Which has a prodromal stage of coryza (runny nose) and koplik spots (white spots) and produces lesions of the buccal mucosa which last two weeks? The patient presents with a maculopapular rash and high fever?
A.
Chicken Pox
B.
Rubeola
C.
Roseola
D.
Mumps
9.
Which of the following involves a rash which starts on the trunk and goes to the extremities?
A.
Scarlet Fever
B.
Rubeola
C.
Roseola
D.
Mumps
10.
Pertussis is associated with
A.
a bacteria
B.
a virus
C.
a prion
D.
pollution
11.
Mumps is associated with
A.
a bacteria
B.
a virus
C.
a prion
D.
an environmental pollutant
12.
Which personality disorder is described? Attention seeking, aggressive, seductive person who is unable to be deeply involved emotionally
A.
Antisocial
B.
Paranoid
C.
Hysterical
D.
Obsessive/Compulsive
13.
Which personality disorder is described? Perfectionist; inflexible; entangled with details; highly repetitive activities
A.
Antisocial
B.
Paranoid
C.
Hysterical
D.
Obsessive/Compulsive
14.
______________ is used for the treatment of herpes
A.
Tricyclics
B.
Acyclovir
C.
Colchicine
D.
Tyramine
15.
______________ is used to treat depression.
A.
Tricyclics
B.
Colchicine
C.
Tyramine
D.
Lithium
16.
A woman who has never given birth to a viable infant is ______________.
A.
Primipara
B.
Nulliparous
C.
Multiparous
17.
The _________ is the cheesy like covering over the body of newborn.
A.
Meconium
B.
Vernix
C.
Lochia
D.
Puerperium
18.
The _________ is a measure of an infant's heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability.
A.
Marasmus
B.
Apgar Score
C.
viability index
D.
sustainability score
19.
__________ prevents hemorrhage in the newborn.
A.
Vitamin C
B.
Vitamin B
C.
Vitamin E
D.
Vitamin K
20.
_______________is used to check for glaucoma.
A.
Multiple Myeloma
B.
Tonometer
C.
Arcus Senilis
D.
PET
21.
_________________is the most common visual problem in the elderly.
A.
Glaucoma
B.
Macular Degeneration
C.
Pink Eye
D.
opthalmia neonatorum
22.
___________ refers to the transfer of a patient to another doctor without the patient’s consent.
A.
Abandonment
B.
Negligence
C.
Arbitration
23.
______________ means to perform a technique on a patient in a careless manner or unskilled manner that violates the standard of care.
A.
Abandonment
B.
Negligence
C.
Arbitration
D.
unprofessionalism
24.
______________suggests a posterior head injury which produces a large black and blue spot and indicates a possible skull fracture.
A.
Raccoon Sign
B.
Rust Sign
C.
Battle Sign
25.
_______________ is seen when an injury produces black and blue spots around the eyes.
A.
Raccoon Sign
B.
Rust Sign
C.
Battle Sign
26.
You should see a _____________ for the following conditions: Diabetes Mellitus, thyroid (hyper and hypo), adrenals (hyper and hypo), DISH.
A.
Gastroenterologist
B.
Endocrinologist
C.
Dermatologist
D.
Oncologist
27.
You should see a ____________ for conditions involving the ears and throat.
A.
Pulmonologist
B.
Otolaryngologist
C.
Urologist
D.
Dermatologist
28.
the most common joint affected by chronic gohorrhea is the :
A.
knee
B.
elbow
C.
ankle
D.
shoulder
29.
secondary syphilis occurs typically ____________ after initial infection
A.
8 weeks to 2 years
B.
10 years
C.
6 months to three years
D.
25 years
30.
candidiasis occurs commonly among those taking ________ medications.
A.
Steroid class
B.
SSRI class
C.
Opioid class
D.
NSAID class
31.
The organism responsible for lymphogranuloma venereum is:
A.
Chlamydia
B.
Syphilis
C.
Neisseria Gohorrhea
D.
Monoliasis
32.
_________ is a condition commonly linked to cervical cancer.
A.
Molluscum Congagiosum
B.
Condylomata acuminata
C.
Granuloma Inguinale
D.
Trichomonas Vaginalis
33.
a very painful lesion, the chancroid is caused by the organism
A.
treponema palladium
B.
hemophilus ducreyi
C.
Staph A.
D.
Strep pyogenes
34.
True or false: the ELISA test is confirmatory for HIV following previous positive, less sensitive testing.
A.
false
B.
true
35.
molluscum congagiosum is caused by a:
A.
virus
B.
bacteria
C.
allergic reaction
36.
Strep infection of the skin, fiery red.
A.
pityriasis
B.
pemphigus
C.
erysipeles
D.
thrush
37.
Tinea ungunum affects the:
A.
nails
B.
groin
C.
body
D.
palmar surface of hands
38.
Tinea cruris affects the:
A.
groin
B.
nails
C.
feet
D.
body
39.
A characteristic herald patch is a clue that a patient is suffering from:
A.
pityriasis
B.
seborrheic dermatitis
C.
psoriasis
D.
Herpes Zoster
40.
Herpes zoster lays dormant in the:
A.
Dorsal root ganglion of the nervous system
B.
Ventral root ganglion of the nervous system
C.
intercostal nerves
D.
sympathetic chain ganglion
41.
Large bullus lesions common among jewish males occur with:
A.
lichen planus
B.
Wen
C.
pemphigus
D.
urticaria
42.
Horrifically dry and scaly skin is termed:
A.
ichthyosis
B.
intertrigo
C.
nummular eczema
D.
lichen planus
43.
Lesions produced by the measles are examples of a:
A.
papule
B.
vessicle
C.
pustule
D.
bulla
44.
A Fluid filled lesion greater than 1/2 cm is termed:
A.
vessicle
B.
bulla
C.
papule
D.
pustule
45.
A person who has been diagnosed by the appropriate professional as suffering with schizoid personality disorder is likely to
A.
be overly fanatical and excited
B.
mumble to his or herself incomprehensibly
C.
be emotionally cold and distant to everyone
D.
suffer bouts of depression, and alternatively manic shopping trips
46.
Which substance tastes of cherry seeds or almonds?
A.
cyanide
B.
arsnic
C.
lead
D.
barbituates
47.
What risk to the elderly is increased when tranquilizers are perscribed?
A.
stroke
B.
falling
C.
lethargy
D.
insomnia
48.
Which class of medications increases the risk associated with adjusting a client due to the increased possibility of bruising and/or subcutaenous bleeding and swelling?
A.
anticolgulants
B.
nsaids
C.
opioids
D.
muscle relaxers
49.
Which sign of pregnancy is described: bluish discoloration of the vagina
A.
chadwick's sign
B.
goodell's sign
C.
piscacek's sign
D.
hegar's sign
50.
Which sign of pregnancy is described: softening of the tip of the cervix
A.
goodell's sign
B.
hegar's sign
C.
piscacek's sign
D.
chadwick's sign
51.
The first perception by the mother of fetal life is called:
A.
lightening
B.
quickening
52.
the greenish-black first discharge from the fetal intestines is called the:
A.
Meconium
B.
Vernix
C.
Lochia
53.
The placental location that confers great risk to pregnancy because of the increased chance of blood loss during the delivery is:
A.
praevia
B.
abruptio
C.
accuretta
54.
A type _____ classified PAP smear shows dyplastic changes.
A.
I
B.
II
C.
III
D.
IV
55.
A child should receive solid food first around
A.
3 months
B.
6 months
C.
9 months
D.
1 year
56.
The anterior fontanelle should close around
A.
6 months
B.
1 year
C.
2 years
D.
18 months
57.
A child should be able to walk unassisted around
A.
10-14 months
B.
12-18 months
C.
24 months
D.
9-12 months
58.
The reflex stimulated by touching the corner of his mouth is:
