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1. 
Which layer of the skin is the most important layer in fighting off pathogens?
A.
Epidermis
B.
Dermis
C.
Subcutaneous layer
D.
Nerves
2. 
There are numerous factors which control microbial load on the skin, which of the following is NOT a factor
A.
Limited amount of moisture
B.
Acid pH
C.
Surface temp higher than optimal for most pathogens
D.
High salt concentration
3. 
There are numerous factors which control microbial load on the skin, which of the following is NOT a factor
A.
Surface temp lower than optimal for most pathogens
B.
Low salt concentration
C.
Presence of chemicals with antibacterial properties
D.
competitive inhibition from normal flora
4. 
What properties does bacteria require to be able to cause infection on the skin?
A.
Able to resist high salt concentration
B.
Presence of host factors that encourage transmission and inoculation
C.
Contains toxins that cause acute inflammation and other reactive / resistant property
D.
All of the above
5. 
A catalase...
A.
Can survive phagocytosis and kill neutrophils
B.
Causes abscess formation
C.
Causes damage to cell membranes
D.
Resists complement and/or antibody mediated opsonisation
6. 
A coagulase...
A.
Can survive phagocytosis and kill neutrophils
B.
Causes abscess formation
C.
Causes damage to cell membranes
D.
Resists complement and/or antibody mediated opsonisation
7. 
Alpha and beta spore forming toxins...
A.
Can survive phagocytosis and kill neutrophils
B.
Causes abscess formation
C.
Causes damage to cell membranes
D.
Resists complement and/or antibody mediated opsonisation
8. 
The manifestation of infectious disease is dependent upon a balancing act between:
A.
Reservoir of infection and mode of transmission
B.
Port of entry and mode of transmission
C.
The virulence of the microbe and susceptibility of the host
D.
The virulence of the host and susceptibility of the microbe
9. 
Penicillin is a member of which class of antimicrobial agents?
A.
Protein synthesis inhibitor; it interferes with mRNA
B.
Nucleic acid inhibitor; it interferes with folate synthesis
C.
Plasma membrane detergent
D.
Cell wall synthesis inhibitor; it interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis
10. 
Antimicrobial therapy with a broad spectrum drug in hospital may result in a patient developing
A.
Pseudomembranous colitis
B.
Diarrhea due to Clostridium difficile
C.
Overgrowth of Candida albicans
D.
Any of the above
11. 
The azole drugs such as clotrimazole treat tinea. The organisms that cause tinea are collectively called dermatophytes. The organisms are acquired in which manner
A.
Zoophilic transmission
B.
Geophylic transmission
C.
Anthropophylic transmission
D.
a, b and c are all potential modes of transmission
12. 
The most common cause of preventable blindness in Australia is:
A.
Streptococcus pneumonia and Haemophilus influenza
B.
Moraxella cattarrhalis
C.
Psudomonas aeruginosa
D.
Chlamydia trachomatis
13. 
Impetigo is caused by Streptococcus aureus. It is an example of a(n):
A.
Disseminated infection that localizes in the skin
B.
Infection where transient skin flora exploit a breach in skin
C.
Infection where disseminated toxin causes tissue damage and inflammation
D.
Dermatophyte infection
14. 
Streptococcus pyogenes causes both pharyngitis and skin infection; the host immune response to this pathogen sometimes can cause damage to the host; this is particularly prevalent in Aboriginal communities. A common complication is
A.
Rheumatic heart disease
B.
Reactive arthritis
C.
Diphtheria
D.
Epiglottitis
15. 
Streptococcus pyrogenes is a
A.
Gram-positive coccus
B.
Gram-positive bacillus
C.
Gram-negative coccus
D.
Gram-negative bacillus
16. 
The leading cause of bacterial community acquired pneumonia is 1. Streptoccocus pneumonia 2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 3. Burkholderia pseudomallei
A.
if 1 only is correct
B.
3 only is correct
C.
if 2 and 3 only are correct
D.
if 1 and 2 only are correct
E.
if 1, 2 and 3 are correct
17. 
The leading cause of fatal, bacterial, community acquired sepsis and pneumonia in tropical Australia in the wet season is 1. Streptococcus pneumoniae 2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 3. Burkholderia pseudomallei
A.
if 1 only is correct
B.
3 only is correct
C.
if 2 and 3 only are correct
D.
if 1 and 2 only are correct
E.
if 1, 2 and 3 are correct
18. 
Children between approximately 3 months and 2 years of age are predisposed to respiratory tract disease because of: 1. lack of maternal antibody 2. lack of own active immunity to common pathogens 3. behavior that encourages transmission of pathogens
A.
if 3 only is correct
B.
if 2 and 3 only are correct
C.
if 1 and 2 only are correct
D.
if 1, 2 and 3 are correct
19. 
The word dermatophyte describes...
A.
Skin loving bacteria
B.
Skin loving fungi
C.
Helminths that live on skin
D.
The skins natural flora
20. 
Which of the following is NOT attributed to dermatophytosis?
A.
Epidermophyton spp
B.
Microsporum spp
C.
Streptococci spp
D.
Trichophyton spp
21. 
Which of the following is an example of an infection of the lower respiratory tract? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
A.
Pneumonia
B.
Pharyngitis
C.
Laryngitis
D.
Bronchitis
E.
Otitis media
F.
Rhinitis
22. 
Which of the following is colonised with a diversity of normal flora?
A.
Upper Respiratory Tract
B.
Lower Respiratory Tract
23. 
True or False: 50% of Upper Respiratory Tract flora are potentially pathogenic for Lower Respiratory Tract or other sites
A.
True
B.
False
24. 
Why does a primary viral infection often predispose a secondary bacterial infection?
A.
Bacterial replication damages blood cells, creating an environment for enhanced viral attachment
B.
Virus replication damages blood cells, creating an environment for enhanced bacterial attachment
C.
Bacterial replication damages epithelial cells, creating an environment for enhanced viral attachment
D.
Virus replication damages epithelial cells, creating an environment for enhanced bacterial attachment
25. 
Pathogens can access the lower respiratory tract by...
A.
Spread of infection from upper respiratory tract
B.
Inhalation of organisms suspended in air
C.
Aspiration of oropharyngeal contents
D.
Via bloodstream from another primary site of infection
E.
All of the above
F.
Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
26. 
Bacteraemia means....
A.
Presence of bacteria in blood
B.
Presence of virus
C.
Presence of parasites
D.
Presence of fungi
E.
Syndrome with inflammatory responses, fever, sepsis
27. 
Septicaemia means...
A.
Presence of bacteria in blood
B.
Presence of virus in blood
C.
Presence of parasites in blood
D.
Syndrome with inflammatory responses, fever, sepsis
E.
Presence of fungi in blood
28. 
Endocarditis refers to inflammation of which area of the heart?
A.
Outer layer
B.
Heart muscle
C.
Inner layer
29. 
Where is the myocardium?
A.
Outer layer of the heart
B.
Upper Respiratory Tract
C.
Heart muscle
D.
Lower Respiratory Tract
30. 
The epicardium refers to...
A.
Outer layer of the heart wall
B.
A heart valve
C.
The heart muscle
D.
The inner layer of the heart wall
31. 
Viraemia refers to...
A.
Transmission of bacteria through blood
B.
Acquiring a virus in the GIT tract
C.
Presence of virus in blood
D.
An autoimmune response
32. 
A term applied to a group of viruses which are biologically transmitted between hosts by biting arthropods...
A.
Retroviruses
B.
Arboviruses
C.
Reoviridae
D.
Arthroviruses
33. 
Untreated streptococcal sore throat may cause
A.
Scarlet fever
B.
Rheumatic fever
C.
Glomerulonephritis
D.
All of the above
34. 
An antigen-antibody reaction that results in clumping of cells is called
A.
Precipitation
B.
Complement fixation
C.
Agglutination
D.
Seroconversion
35. 
Diarrhoeal disease is more common in children attending day care centres than those at home because
A.
of close contact between children
B.
of oral exploration of objects by young children
C.
staff can spread disease between children
D.
some organisms that affect children have a low infectious dose
E.
all of the above are true
36. 
Which of the following diseases is characteristically transmitted to humans in the urine of animals?
A.
Leptospirosis
B.
Q fever
C.
Melioidosis
D.
Anthrax
E.
Listeriosis
37. 
Infection with Giardia intestinalis
A.
only occurs in immunocompromised people
B.
is a serious disease known as amoebic dysentery
C.
is extremely rare in Australia
D.
is diagnosed by microscopic examination of stools
E.
all of the above are correct
38. 
Viral meningitis is
A.
more severe than bacterial meningitis
B.
often caused by enteroviruses
C.
characterised by a lack of white cells in the CSF
D.
less common than bacterial meningitis
E.
effectively treated with ceftriaxone
39. 
Hookworm infestation
A.
can cause iron deficiency and anaemia
B.
is always symptomatic, characterised by a bloody diarrhoea
C.
remains localised in the intestine
D.
occurs when cysts are ingested in contaminated drinking water
E.
all of the above are correct
40. 
Which of the following foods would carry the least risk of a gastrointestinal infection?
A.
Raw sushi
B.
Fish and chips
C.
An egg with a cracked shell
D.
Leftovers stored at room temperature
E.
custard cream cake stored at room temperature
41. 
Which of the following can increase the risk of urinary tract infection?
A.
Urinary catheterisation
B.
Pregnancy
C.
Hypertrophy of the prostate gland
D.
Renal calculi
E.
All of the above
42. 
Bacterial vaginosis
A.
is characterised by an abnormal vaginal discharge
B.
is often asymptomatic
C.
can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease
D.
all of the above are correct