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1. 
In the respiratory system, the respiratory zone consists of:
A.
Alveoli and terminal bronchioles
B.
Trachea and bronchi
C.
Bronchi and bronchioles
D.
Trachea and alveoli
2. 
In the respiratory system, which tissue has the function of producing mucus?
A.
Muscle
B.
Epithelium
C.
Cartilage
D.
Bone
3. 
In the respiratory system, which tissue regulates airway diameter?
A.
Epithelium
B.
Muscle
C.
Cartilage
D.
Bone
4. 
What is the function of cartilage in the respiratory system?
A.
Produces mucus
B.
regulates airway diameter
C.
Resists collapse
5. 
Which of the following does not have epithelium?
A.
Trachea
B.
Bronchi
C.
Bronchioles
D.
They all have epithelium
6. 
Which of the following airways does not have muscle?
A.
Trachea
B.
Bronchi
C.
Bronchioles
D.
They all have muscle
7. 
Which of the following airways does not have cartilage?
A.
Trachea
B.
Bronchi
C.
Bronchioles
D.
They all have cartilage
8. 
The site of greatest resistance in the airways is...
A.
Trachea
B.
Large bronchi
C.
Small bronchi
D.
bronchioles
E.
Alveoli
9. 
The greatest factor affecting airway resistance is...
A.
Airway length
B.
Airway diameter
C.
Alveolar capillary membrane
D.
Surfactant
10. 
A condition which increases airway resistance is called...
A.
A restrictive condition
B.
An infection
C.
An obstructive condition
D.
A bronchodilator
11. 
Airway diameter is managed mostly via drugs causing airway smooth muscle to ______ by stimulating binding ________ receptors
A.
Contract, cholinergic
B.
Relax, Cholinergic
C.
Contract, Adrenergic
D.
Relax, Adrenergic
12. 
Airway smooth muscle can be relaxed by blocking cholinergic receptors. They work by blocking which receptors
A.
Beta 1
B.
Beta 2
C.
M2
D.
M3
13. 
The alveolar ventilation rate is the amount of air__________ every minute
A.
Taken into the respiratory system
B.
Reaching the alveoli
C.
left in the respiratory system
D.
exhaled from the respiratory system
14. 
Minute ventilation is the product of....
A.
Tidal volume - residual volume x breaths per minute
B.
Tidal volume x residual volume
C.
Tidal volume - breaths per minute x residual volume
D.
Tidal volume x breaths per minute
15. 
Airway patency is maintained in cough and sneezing by _______________ in the smaller airways and ____________ in the larger airways
A.
Cartilage, airway pressure
B.
Airway pressure, cartilage
C.
muscle, epithelium
D.
epithelium, muscle
16. 
Paediatric patients are more prone to respiratory complications than adults due to:
A.
Large tongue, narrower airways, ^BMR, nasal breathers
B.
The fact that they don't listen to a word you say
C.
Large tongue, large airways, more alveoli, mouth breathers
D.
Small tongue, small airways, small alveoli, small feet
17. 
Which RR is normal for an infant?
A.
12-16
B.
18-30
C.
24-40
D.
30-60
18. 
The paediatric assessment triangle is used during the rapid assessment of a child and looks at:
A.
WOB, circulation, bowel sounds
B.
Perfusion, HR, RR
C.
BP, RR, Temperature
D.
General appearance, WOB, circulation
19. 
Signs of respiratory distress in the paediatric patient include which of the following?
A.
Talking, Feeding, SOB, sucking in of nostrils
B.
sternal/subcostal/intercostal recession nasal flare head bob
C.
sternal/subcostal/intercostal recession, crying, screaming
D.
Crying, talking, laughing, feeding
20. 
How long should you count a RR in children?
A.
15 secs and x 4
B.
30 seconds and x 2
C.
60 seconds
D.
2 mins
21. 
Which question would you NOT ask during a paediatric respiratory subjective assessment?
A.
Onset of illness, duration of illness, feeding normally?
B.
What movie did you watch last night?
C.
Neonatal hx, congenital anomalies, previous resp probs
D.
Parents smoke? Siblings? Child care?
22. 
There are 3 main types of transmission based precautions. These are:
A.
Standard, infectious, transmission precautions
B.
Tuberculosis, influenza, meningococcal, whooping cough
C.
Influenza A, Influenza B, Pneumonia, Asthma
D.
Contact, droplet, airborne precautions
23. 
Which precautions are necessary with Chicken Pox, Tuberculosis and Measles?
A.
Airborne
B.
Contact
C.
Droplet
D.
Standard
24. 
Which precautions are necessary with Meningococcal disease, influenza, pertussis?
A.
Airborne
B.
Contact
C.
Droplet
D.
Standard
25. 
An N95 or P2 mask needs to be utilised during which precautions
A.
Airborne
B.
Contact
C.
Droplet
D.
Standard
26. 
A surgical mask needs to be utilised during which precautions?
A.
Airborne
B.
Contact
C.
Droplet
D.
Standard
27. 
It is important to do a fit check EVERY time you put on a P2 or N95 mask & before you enter the room
A.
True
B.
False
28. 
Which is NOT true regarding all masks used during transmission precautions?
A.
Should not be touched while being worn
B.
Should never be reapplied after being worn
C.
Should be left dangling around neck when not in use
D.
HH should be performed upon touching or disposing of mask
29. 
A fit check of N95 or P2 mask includes:
A.
Forcefully inhale & exhale - Should feel air out sides
B.
Should be above chin
C.
Forcefully inhale & exhale - mask should collapse and expand
D.
Should fit loosely around bridge of nose
30. 
Hypercapnia is:
A.
Too much CO2 in arterial blood
B.
Too little O2 in arterial blood
C.
Too little CO2 in arterial blood
D.
too little O2 in tissue
31. 
Too little O2 in arterial blood is called;
A.
Hypercarbia
B.
Hypoxemia
C.
Hypocapnia
D.
Hypoxia
32. 
Hypocapnia is:
A.
Too much CO2 in arterial blood
B.
Too little O2 in arterial blood
C.
Too little CO2 in arterial blood
D.
too little O2 in tissue
33. 
Hypoxia is;
A.
Too much CO2 in arterial blood
B.
Too little O2 in arterial blood
C.
Too little CO2 in arterial blood
D.
Too little O2 in tissue
34. 
Blood in pulmonary arteries has high CO2 and low O2
A.
True
B.
False
35. 
Pulmonary veins have high CO2 and low O2
A.
True
B.
False
36. 
You know that a person suffering an asthma attack at home should follow the following treatment plan
A.
Check peak flow and if 10% less than normal peak flow administer two puffs of salbutamol then check again
B.
Call an ambulance immediately
C.
Administer 2 puffs of short acting beta agonist (salbutamol) inhaler immediately, wait four minutes and if needed administer another 2 puffs
D.
Administer 4 puffs of short acting beta agonist (salbutamol) inhaler immediately, wait four minutes and if needed administer another 4 puffs
37. 
Which of the following represents the strongest predisposing factors for asthma?
A.
Allergy
B.
Stress
C.
Airway irritants
D.
Exercise
38. 
Physiological changes seen during an asthma attack include
A.
Bronchodilation, airway narrowing and airway odema
B.
Bronchoconstriction, airway odema and airway narrowing
C.
increased sputum production, hypotension and bronchodilation
39. 
Highlight the 3 most common symptoms of asthma
A.
cough
B.
wheeze
C.
stridor
D.
dyspnoea
E.
tachycardia
F.
tachypnoea
40. 
During the initial stages of an asthma attack wheezing is often heard during expiration
A.
True
B.
False
41. 
Which of the following medication is classed as a short acting beta agonist?
A.
Ipratroprium
B.
Salbutamol
C.
Methylprednisolone
42. 
An appropriate amount of oxygen to deliver via nasal prongs would be
A.
5 L/min
B.
8 L/min
C.
3 L/min
D.
What ever is comfortable for the patient
43. 
A respiratory health assessment should include all of the following except
A.
Percussion
B.
Auscultation
C.
Inspection
D.
Inclination
44. 
A lipoprotein that lowers the surface tension in the alveoli is known as
A.
Pleural fluid
B.
Surfactant
C.
Serous fluid
D.
Saliva
45. 
Accumulation of fluid in the pleural space is known as
A.
Pleural effusion
B.
Pneumothorax
C.
Hemothorax
D.
Pleural odema
46. 
Which statement indicates appropriate understanding of the term 'atelectasis'?
A.
'The lung has partially collapsed'
B.
'A lobe of the lung has collapsed'
C.
'Air sacs within the lung have collapsed'
D.
'A complete collapse of the lung has occurred'
47. 
A teaching point the nurse may include when instructing a patient on pursed-lip breathing is
A.
Breathing in deeply through the nose with the mouth open
B.
Arch the back when inhaling
C.
Inhale to a count of 3
D.
Exhale to a count of 3
48. 
To deliver high concentration of oxygen 95%, which oxygen delivery device would you choose?
A.
Face mask
B.
Nasal cannula
C.
Partial rebreather mask
D.
Non-rebreather mask
49. 
Documentation of tracheostomy care should include
A.
The length of time the procedure took
B.
How many times the patient coughed
C.
The amount, consistency, colour and odour of sputum
D.
The cardiac assessment results
50. 
Which item is NOT included for all tracheostomy tubes?
A.
Outer cannula
B.
Inner cannula
C.
Flange
D.
Obturator
51. 
The most appropriate precautions for a patient with TB are
A.
Airborne precautions
B.
Contact precautions
C.
Droplet precautions
D.
Standard precautions
52. 
The most appropriate precautions for a patient with influenza are contact and
A.
Standard precautions
B.
Droplet precautions
C.
Airborne precautions
D.
Only contact is required
53. 
A chronic inflammatory disease associated with widespread but variable airflow obstruction
A.
Bronchiectasis
B.
COPD
C.
Asthma
D.
Pneumonia
54. 
Identify the nursing action most appropriate for a patient with anxiety related to COPD
A.
Titrate oxygen to keep saturation at least 90%
B.
Discuss a high-protein, high-calorie diet with the patient
C.
Suggest the use of over-the-counter sedative medications
D.
Teach patient how to effectively use pursed lip breathing
55. 
The best solution if a chest drain system breaks is to
A.
Place the distal end of tube into sterile water of 2cm
B.
Clamp the tube
C.
Cover the tube with a sterile gauze and call for assistance
D.
Leave it open to air
56. 
Fit, tall, thin males are at higher risk of
A.
Tension pneumothorax
B.
Spontaneous pneumothorax
C.
Traumatic pneumothorax
D.
Haemothorax
57. 
Emergency care of a patient suffering an out of hospital asthma attack includes
A.
the 4, 4 and 4
B.
the 4, 2 and 4 rule
C.
call 000 immediately
D.
perform peak flow
58. 
ABG result of pH 7.27 PaCO2 60mmHg PaO2 70mmHg HCO3 23mM SpO2 83% RA would indicate
A.
Metabolic acidosis
B.
Respiratory acidosis
C.
Respiratory alkalosis
D.
The blood gas is within normal range
59. 
An appropriate nursing intervention to achieve a goal of improving oxygen saturations would be
A.
Lie patient on left side
B.
Sit patient in high fowler's position
C.
Administer a bronchodilator
D.
Place pulse oximeter on patient
60. 
An appropriate nursing goal for a patient experiencing low O2 saturations would be
A.
Mr... O2 saturations will rise to 97% within the next 5 mins
B.
Sit patient in semi-fowlers position
C.
O2 saturations will increase
D.
Patient is no longer confused
61. 
Low cuff pressure on a cuffed tracheostomy tube causes
A.
Tracheal necrosis
B.
Risk of aspiration
C.
Dislodgement
D.
Swelling of the larynx
62. 
Tall, thin males are at higher risk of
A.
Tension pneumothorax
B.
cardiac tamponade
C.
haemothorax
D.
spontaneous pneumothorax