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1. 
Blood type A can be given to all blood types
A.
True
B.
False
2. 
How long have you got to commence the blood transfusion once the blood is removed from the fridge?
A.
10 mins
B.
1 hour
C.
4 hours
D.
30 mins
3. 
How many hours have you got to complete the bag of blood from the time it is removed from the fridge?
A.
4 hours
B.
3 hours
C.
2 hours
D.
1 hour
4. 
What should you check before starting a blood transfusion?
A.
Patient blood group and blood product is compatible
B.
The blood bag has not expired and no signs of contamination
C.
Baseline observations
D.
All of the above
5. 
When you work through the blood checks, a discrepancy is found. What should you do?
A.
Administer the blood immediately
B.
Start the blood transfusion, and if there a no reactions then continue
C.
Do not transfuse the blood. Contact blood transfusion department
D.
See if another patient can use it. Don't waste it!
6. 
Overnight transfusion of blood should be avoided if possible
A.
True
B.
False
7. 
Blood transfusion reactions may include?
A.
Fever, chills, pruritus
B.
Nausea, bleeding, tachycardia or dyspnoea
C.
Headache, chest and lower back pain
D.
All of the above
8. 
When should you check the patient's vital signs once the blood transfusion has commenced?
A.
5 mins
B.
20 mins
C.
15 mins
D.
Hourly
9. 
Field of nursing that addresses the nursing roles associated with the three phases of surgical experiences
A.
Pre-operative phase
B.
Post-operative phase
C.
Peri-operative nursing
D.
Intra-operative phase
10. 
....also known as the instrument nurse
A.
Musical Nurse
B.
Scrub Nurse
C.
Scout Nurse
D.
Anaesthetic Nurse
11. 
Phase begins with the admission of the patient to the PACU and ends after follow-up... possibly at home
A.
Rehab
B.
Peri-operative phase
C.
Pre-operative phase
D.
Post-operative phase
12. 
Nurses must ensure this document is filled out, signed by both the doctor AND the patient prior to surgery
A.
Menu for first post-op Meal
B.
Pre-operative checklist
C.
Consent form
D.
Proof of NBM status
13. 
On the pre-op checklist it is important to check fasting time. What is this?
A.
The time it took to get from the ward to the operating department
B.
When the patient last ate
C.
Checking the patient is securely fastened to the trolley
D.
Checking their jewelry is properly fasted with tape
14. 
This must be clearly marked (often with a surgical pen) prior to surgery if applicable...
A.
The surgical site
B.
The surgeons initials on the patients forehead
C.
The scrub nurse
D.
High value jewelry items
15. 
This nurse assists the anaesthetist during preparation, induction, maintenance and emergence
A.
Scrub Nurse
B.
Scout Nurse
C.
Anaesthetic Nurse
D.
Instrument Nurse
16. 
This nurse anticipates the needs of the surgical team before / during surgery
A.
Scrub Nurse
B.
Scout Nurse
C.
Instrument Nurse
D.
The Clairvoyant Nurse
17. 
PACU is,,,
A.
The Post-Anaesthesia Care Unit
B.
The Postanaesthesia Acute Care Unit
C.
The Postanaesthesia Acute Coronary Unit
D.
The Post-Anaesthesia Caution Unit
18. 
...the phase covering admission to Operating Theatre, the procedure/operation & transfer to PACU?
A.
Peri-operative phase
B.
Pre-operative phase
C.
Intra-operative phase
D.
Inter-operative phase
19. 
Cushing's syndrome is primarily due to...
A.
Excessive secretion of aldosterone
B.
Excessive secretion of thyroid hormone
C.
Excessive secretion of corticosteroids
D.
Excessive secretion of insulin
20. 
Which of the following are at risk of developing Cushing's syndrome?
A.
A patient with a tumour on the pituitary gland causing too much ACTH
B.
A patient taking glucocorticoids for several weeks
C.
A patient with tuberculosis
D.
A post-op adrenalectomy patient
21. 
Which of the following is a symptom of excessive aldosterone secretion
A.
Hypertension
B.
Hyperglycaemia
C.
Polyuria
D.
Reduced metabolism
22. 
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Cushing's disease?
A.
Increased weight
B.
Breakdown of skeletal muscle
C.
Hypoglycaemia
D.
Increased risk of infection
23. 
Addison's disease is:
A.
Increased secretion of cortisol
B.
Increased secretion of aldosterone and cortisol
C.
Decreased secretion of cortisol
D.
Decreased secretion of cortisol and aldosterone
24. 
Which of the following would typically be used to treat Addison's disease
A.
Synthetic ADH (desmopressin)
B.
Progesterone only oral contraceptives
C.
Thyroxine
D.
Corticosteroids
25. 
A pt with Addison's disease is being discharged on prednisone. Which of the following statements warrants re-education
A.
I will notify Dr if I become sick or extra stressed
B.
I will take this medication as needed when symptoms are present
C.
I will take this medication at the same time every day
D.
My daughter has bought me a medic-alert bracelet
26. 
A patient reports they do not eat enough iodine in their diet. What condition are they most susceptible to?
A.
Addison's disease
B.
Cushing's disease
C.
Hypothyroidism
D.
Hyperthyroidism
27. 
Which of the following is true regarding thyroid hormones?
A.
They are water soluble amines
B.
They contain iodine
C.
They regulate plasma calcium levels
D.
They are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland
28. 
Which of the following is a clinical sign of hyposecretion of thyroid hormone?
A.
tachycardia
B.
Decrease skin temperature
C.
Hyperactivity, agitation and insomnia
D.
insensitivity to insulin
E.
Dehydration due to increased urination
29. 
Which of the following diseases is caused by excessive thyroid function?
A.
Acromegaly
B.
Thalassemia
C.
Grave's Disease
D.
Addison's disease
30. 
c/o palpitations, excessive sweating, heat intolerance plus appearance changes including bulging eyes may be caused by:
A.
Grave's disease
B.
Deficiency of iodine
C.
Hypothyroidism
D.
Thyroiditis
31. 
A pt is 6 hours post-op from a thyroidectomy for treatment of Hyperthyroidism. What position is best for this patient?
A.
Fowler's
B.
Prone
C.
Trendelenberg
D.
Semi-Fowler's
32. 
You are developing a care plan for a pt with SIADH. Which of the following would be a potential nursing problem?
A.
Fluid volume overload
B.
Fluid volume deficit
C.
Acute pain
D.
Impaired skin integrity
33. 
What would be a likely nursing intervention for a pt with SIADH
A.
IV fluid bolus
B.
Administration of desmopressin as ordered
C.
Fluid restriction of 800-1000mls/day
D.
Administration of an antiemetic
34. 
Which of the following is a characteristic sign of Diabetes Insipidus
A.
Increased urine output
B.
Hyperglycaemia
C.
Weight gain
D.
Bradycardia
E.
Increased cellular metabolism
35. 
Which of the following signs & symptoms is NOT expected with DI
A.
Polyuria
B.
Polydipsia
C.
Extreme thirst
D.
Polyphagia
36. 
Which of the following would NOT be a nursing intervention for DI?
A.
Administration of fluids as ordered
B.
Fluid restriction of 800-1000mls/day
C.
Administration of Desmopressin as ordered
D.
Neuro obs and monitoring of sodium levels
37. 
The individual with the lowest risk of sexually transmitted Pelvic Inflammatory Disease is a woman who
A.
uses oral contraceptives
B.
uses barrier methods of contraception
C.
uses an intrauterine device for contraception
D.
uses a Norplant implant or injectable Depo-Provera for contraception
38. 
Which STI is the most frequently reported notifiable condition in Australia?
A.
Syphilis
B.
Chlamydia
C.
Gonorrhoea
D.
Genital herpes
39. 
Symptoms of chlamydial infection in most infected women
A.
are frequently absent
B.
are similar to those of genital herpes
C.
include a macular palmar rash in the later stages
D.
may involve chancres inside the vagina that are not visible
40. 
Genital Herpes infection is caused by which virus
A.
Influenza virus
B.
Herpes complicated virus
C.
Human immunodeficiency virus
D.
Herpes simplex virus
41. 
In Australia, communicable diseases such as syphilis, donovanosis, gonorrhoea and chlamydia are reported to the NNDSS
A.
True
B.
False
42. 
Gonorrhoea and syphilis are caused by a...
A.
Virus
B.
Bacteria
43. 
The initial site of gonorrhoea in men is usually
A.
the mouth
B.
the testicles
C.
the urethra
D.
the ear
44. 
The treatment of gonorrhoea in the early stage is curative with the use of
A.
IM dose of ceftriaxone
B.
IV dose of ampicillin
C.
IM dose of ampicillin
D.
IV dose of ceftriaxone
45. 
In the primary stages of syphilis, Chancre can be present. What is Chancre?
A.
very painful lesions of penis, vulva, lips, mouth, vagina and rectum
B.
Burning, itching or tingling at the site
C.
multiple small, vesicular and sometimes painless lesions on inner thigh
D.
painless indurated lesion of penis, vulva, lips, mouth, vagina and rectum
46. 
Symptomatic treatment of genital herpes may include
A.
good genital hygiene and frequent sitz baths
B.
keeping lesions clean and dry and may require a local anaesthetic for pain
C.
wearing loose fitting cotton undergarments
D.
All of the above
47. 
What drug therapy is used to treat HSV?
A.
Aciclovir
B.
Ampicillin
C.
Ceftriaxone
D.
All of the above
48. 
Which of the following statements is true about chlamydia?
A.
Often causes pain when blisters appear but it is treatable with antibiotics
B.
Causes pain when blisters appear and there is no treatment available
C.
There is a dramatic decrease in risk with condom use but no treatment available
D.
Dramatic decrease in risk with condom use, treatable with antibiotics
49. 
Who am I? Leading contributor to cervical cancer, highly contagious, dramatic fall in incidence since vaccine developed
A.
human papillomavirus
B.
gonorrhoea
C.
Syphilis
D.
hepatitis B
50. 
Which hormone is pivitol to long term regulation of energy stores?
A.
Cholecystokinin
B.
Ghrelin
C.
Insulin
D.
Peptide YY
E.
Leptin
51. 
Which of the following treatments is most effective in reducing urethral constriction caused by enlargement of the prostate during prostatitis?
A.
5 alpha reductase inhibitors
B.
alpha blockers
C.
oestrogen infusion
D.
antibiotic treatment
E.
androgen receptor antagonists
52. 
Which of the following describes the sequence of events in second intention wound healing?
A.
re-vascularisation, clot formation, collagen deposition
B.
re-epithelialisation, wound contraction, collagen deposition
C.
clot formation, collagen deposition, wound contraction
D.
re-epithelialisation, wound contraction, clot formation
53. 
Fludrocortisone would be MOST appropriate for the treatment of which of the following diseases?
A.
Conn's disease
B.
Hashimoto's disease
C.
Cushing's disease
D.
Addison's disease
E.
Grave's disease
54. 
Which of the following is NOT a potential treatment option for peptic ulcer disease
A.
Proton pump inhibitors such as esomeperazole and pantoprazole
B.
Histamine receptor antagonists such as ranitidine and famotidine
C.
Antibiotic therapies such as amoxycillin and metronidazole
D.
Allosteric agonists of the GABA receptor such as benzodiazepines
E.
Antacids such as calcium carbonate and aluminium hydroxide
55. 
Which of the following best describes how the antimuscarinic anti-emetic drugs such as hyoscine affect nausea and vomiting?
A.
It binds to acetylcholine receptors in the vestibular apparatus
B.
It binds to histamine receptors in the vestibular apparatus
C.
It binds to and inhibits dopamine receptors in the chemical trigger zone
D.
It binds to and inhibits serotonin receptors in the chemical trigger zone
E.
It binds to and inhibits neurokinin receptors in the vomiting centre
56. 
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the effects of alcohol on the liver?
A.
Alcohol abuse can lead to viral hepatitis due to its toxicity to liver
B.
Alcohol leads to excess carbohydrate formation as alcohol is converted to glucose in the liver
C.
Excessive alcohol consumption can lead to fatty liver disease
D.
Prolonged alcohol abuse leads to fluid accumulation in the abdomen, which is called cirrhosis due to liver hyperfunction
57. 
Which of the following hormonal disorders will cause increased body weight if not controlled?
A.
Cushing's syndrome
B.
Hyperthyroidism
C.
Diabetes insipidus
D.
Addison's disease
E.
Type 1 diabetes mellitus
58. 
Conn's disease is primarily due to:
A.
Hyposecretion of corticosteroids
B.
Excessive secretion of growth hormone
C.
Excessive secretion of thyroid hormone
D.
Excessive secretion of aldosterone
E.
Excessive secretion of insulin
59. 
Which of the following is a symptom of Addison's disease?
A.
Increased body weight
B.
hirsutism
C.
Hypoglycaemia
D.
hypokalaemia
E.
cool skin and bradycardia