Fundamentals of Nursing

Froggy Jumps

Played 1

Create copy

About this activity

Fundamentals of Nursing

Created by

Ajebasare Miracle

Nigeria

Download the paper version to play

Top 10 results

There are still no results for this game. Be the first to stay in the ranking! Log in to identify yourself.

Make your own free game from our game creator

Compete against your friends to see who gets the best score in this game

Make challenge

Ethos, Pathos, and Logos Quiz

Kristine Vester

United States

(134)

Test your knowledge of ethos, pathos, and logos with these 10 questions on examples of persuasive techniques.
Phlebotomy Order of Draw Quiz

Pamela Chapman

United States

(61)

Test your knowledge of the order of draw in Phlebotomy with these 10 questions!
pizza

Lorelay Tyana

Romania

(268)

joc despre pizza
The Integumentary System

Breanna Nesbitt

United States

(59)

Functions and Structures of the skin
Bill of Rights Game - The Constitutionalist

Doni The Don

United States

(92)

Test your knowledge on the Bill of Rights. A fun way to test your knowledge and focus on where you need to improve.

		%
	Anonymous	%
		%
		%

Print your game

Fundamentals of Nursing


Froggy Jumps Fundamentals of NursingOnline version Fundamentals of Nursing by Ajebasare Miracle 1 Maslow’s Hierarchy: Which level involves basic survival needs? a Self-actualization b Physiological needs c Esteem needs 2 What is the first step of the nursing process? a Evaluation b Implementation c Assessment 3 Which PPE is removed first when doffing? a Face shield b Gloves c Gown 4 Which hand hygiene method kills Clostridium difficile? a Soap and water b Alcohol-based sanitizer c Hydrogen peroxide wipe 5 The primary purpose of a nursing diagnosis is to… a Identify patient responses to health problems b Prescribe medical treatment c Decide surgical interventions 6 What is the correct order for removing PPE? a Mask → Gloves → Gown b Gloves → Gown → Mask c Gown → Mask → Gloves 7 Which nursing action is independent? a Administering IV medications b Educating the patient about hygiene c Starting oxygen therapy 8 What is the proper patient position for preventing aspiration? a High Fowler’s (60–90°) b Supine c Trendelenburg 9 What is the safest transfer method for a weak patient? a Dragging the patient b Pulling from the arm c Gait belt with assistance 10 Which item is included in standard precautions? a N95 for every patient b Gloves when touching body fluids c Isolation for all coughs 11 What type of isolation is used for tuberculosis? a Airborne precautions (N95 mask) b Droplet precautions c Contact precautions 12 What is the normal range for adult respiratory rate? a 6–12 breaths/min b 12–20 breaths/min c 20–35 breaths/min 13 What is the primary goal of infection control? a Shorten hospital stay b Reduce hospital bills c Prevent spread of pathogens 14 Which action is part of therapeutic communication? a Giving personal advice b Active listening c Changing the subject 15 Which action prevents pressure ulcers? a Reposition every 2 hours b Raising head of bed all day c Leaving patient on one side 16 What is the safest method to identify a patient? a Check wristband and confirm with patient b Ask a family member c Guess using room number 17 Which term means the nurse and patient work together toward goals? a Delegation b Collaboration c Advocacy 18 What is the first action if a patient falls? a Fill incident report b Call the doctor immediately c Assess the patient for injury 19 What is important when documenting? a Use vague words like “seems okay” b Write factual, objective information c Document before performing care 20 Which level includes maintaining body temperature and fluid balance? a Physiological needs b Safety needs c Love & belonging 21 Seeking respect and autonomy belongs to which level? a Physiological b Esteem needs c Self-actualization 22 Which need is addressed when helping a patient develop purpose? a Safety b Self-actualization c Love & belonging 23 A nurse collects subjective & objective data. Which step? a Planning b Assessment c Implementation 24 Writing SMART goals belongs to which step? a Planning b Diagnosis c Evaluation 25 Turning a patient every 2 hours is which step? a Implementation b Planning c Diagnosis 26 Determining whether goals were met is which step? a Implementation b Assessment c Evaluation 27 Identifying patient responses such as “acute pain” is which step? a Assessment b Nursing diagnosis c Evaluation 28 “Tell me more about how you feel” is an example of: a Open-ended question b Giving advice c False reassurance 29 A nurse remains silent to allow patient reflection. This is: a Therapeutic silence b Minimizing c Probing 30 “I hear that you are worried about the surgery” is: a Confrontation b Reflection c Judgment 31 Which precaution requires a negative-pressure room? a Airborne (TB, measles) b Droplet c Contact 32 Which PPE is required for droplet precautions? a No mask needed b N95 c Surgical mask 33 What pathogen is alcohol sanitiser NOT effective against? a C. difficile b Influenza c RSV 34 Best way to prevent catheter-associated UTIs? a Strict aseptic insertion technique b Changing catheter daily c Applying ointment 35 Which is removed first when doffing PPE? a Mask b Gloves c Gown 36 Which is applied last when donning PPE? a Gloves b Gown c Goggles 37 Best position to prevent aspiration? a High Fowler’s (60–90°) b Prone c Lithotomy 38 Best position for hypotensive shock? a Supine b Modified Trendelenburg (legs elevated) c High Fowler’s 39 Which position is used for enemas? a Left side Sims’ b Prone c Right lateral 40 A weak, thready pulse indicates: a Overhydration b Hypertension c Low blood volume (shock) 41 Which pulse is checked before cardiac meds (digoxin)? a Brachial b Radial c Apical pulse 42 Which temperature route is MOST accurate? a Rectal b Axillary c Tympanic 43 Which factor increases BP? a Pain b Sleep c Hemorrhage 44 Which entry is correct legal documentation? a “Patient reports pain 8/10.” b “Patient seems fine.” c “Probably anxious.” 45 Incident reports are used to: a Improve safety & prevent future errors b Punish nurses c Enter into patient’s file 46 Which is objective data? a “I feel cold.” b BP 160/90 mmHg c “I think he is confused.” 47 Best teaching strategy for new diagnosis: a Teach while patient is in severe pain b Start with complex terms c Assess patient’s baseline knowledge first 48 Best way to confirm understanding: a Teach-back method (patient repeats in own words) b Ask “Do you understand?” c Give pamphlet only 49 For elderly patients, teaching should include: a Slow pace + repetition b Fast explanations c Long paragraphs 50 Obtaining informed consent is responsibility of: a Physician (explains; nurse witnesses) b Nurse c Family member 51 Which action violates confidentiality? a Documenting care b Sharing patient details with unauthorized person c Giving report to next nurse 52 Ethical principle of “doing good” is: a Beneficence b Autonomy c Fidelity 53 Ethical principle of truth-telling: a Veracity b Non-maleficence c Justice 54 Oral care for unconscious patient requires: a Side-lying position b Supine c Trendelenburg 55 Sign of dehydration: a Edema b Poor skin turgor c Weight gain 56 Hyperkalemia causes: a Constipation b Cardiac arrhythmias c Bleeding 57 Hyponatremia causes: a Hypertension b Confusion and seizures c Muscle thickening 58 Serous drainage looks: a Bright red b Thick and green c Clear/pale yellow 59 Sign of wound infection: a Mild soreness b Pink edges c Purulent drainage + heat 60 First step before ambulating a patient: a Pull patient upright suddenly b Assess for dizziness/orthostatic hypotension c Make them fast 61 Which blood component is used to increase hemoglobin rapidly? a Platelets b Packed RBCs c Fresh frozen plasma 62 Which blood product treats thrombocytopenia? a Cryoprecipitate b Albumin c Platelets 63 Universal donor for RBCs: a O negative b AB positive c A positive 64 First nursing action when transfusion starts: a Flush the line with blood b Stop the transfusion immediately c Document only 65 Which fluid is used to run with blood? a Normal saline only b Dextrose 5% c Lactated Ringer’s 66 Which reaction causes fever and chills? a Febrile non-hemolytic reaction b Circulatory overload c Bacterial contamination 67 Which reaction causes wheezing, hypotension, and airway obstruction? a Mild allergic b Anaphylactic reaction c Hemolytic 68 Normal potassium level: a 3.5–5.0 mEq/L b 2.0–3.0 mEq/L c 6.0–8.0 mEq/L 69 Critical potassium indicating risk of fatal arrhythmia: a K+ 4.0 mEq/L b K+ ≥ 6.0 mEq/L c K+ 3.8 mEq/L 70 Normal sodium level: a 135–145 mEq/L b 100–110 mEq/L c 150–170 mEq/L 71 Normal hemoglobin (female): a 12–16 g/dL b 5–8 g/dL c 20–25 g/dL 72 What does high BUN indicate? a Liver failure b Kidney impairment or dehydration c Hyperthyroidism 73 INR therapeutic range for warfarin: a 4.0–5.0 b 0.5–1.0 c 2.0–3.0 74 WBC count of 2,000/mm³ indicates: a Dehydration b Polycythemia c Neutropenia (infection risk) 75 Formula for dosage calculations: a Dose ordered ÷ Dose on hand × Volume b Volume × Time ÷ 60 c Weight ÷ 2 × 10 76 IV flow rate in gtt/min uses: a (Volume × Drop factor) ÷ Time b Weight × Dose c Time × ml/hr 77 Pediatric dose is calculated using: a Weight in pounds only b Weight in kg (ALWAYS in kg) c Age in months only 78 Safe dose range is determined by: a mg/kg/day guidelines b Patient preference c Nurse judgment alone 79 Dimensional analysis focuses on: a Guessing approximate values b c Unit cancellation 80 P wave represents: a Atrial depolarization b Ventricular depolarization c Atrial repolarization 81 QRS complex represents: a Ventricular repolarization b Ventricular depolarization c SA node firing 82 T wave represents: a Atrial depolarization b Ventricular repolarization c Ventricular contraction 83 Normal PR interval: a 0.12–0.20 seconds b 0.01–0.05 seconds c 0.40–0.60 seconds 84 Normal QRS duration: a < 0.12 seconds b > 0.20 seconds c > 0.40 seconds 85 A regular rhythm with normal P waves is: a Normal sinus rhythm b Atrial flutter c Ventricular tachycardia 86 pH 7.32 indicates: a Acidosis b Alkalosis c Normal 87 pH 7.52 indicates: a Acidosis b Alkalosis c Normal 88 High CO₂ (PaCO₂ > 45) indicates: a Respiratory acidosis b Metabolic alkalosis c Metabolic acidosis 89 Low HCO₃ (< 22) indicates: a Respiratory acidosis b Metabolic alkalosis c Metabolic acidosis 90 ROME meaning: a Respiratory Opposite / Metabolic Equal b Respiratory Onset / Metabolic End c Reverse Oxygen / Metabolic Exchange 91 pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 60, HCO₃ 24 is: a Compensated metabolic acidosis b Uncompensated respiratory acidosis c Respiratory alkalosis 92 Normal saline (0.9%) is: a Hypertonic b Hypotonic c Isotonic 93 D5W becomes: a Stays isotonic b Hypotonic in the body c Hypertonic 94 Lactated Ringer’s is used for: a Burns & trauma resuscitation b Renal failure c Hypernatremia 95 Hypertonic fluids (3% saline) are used for: a Dehydration b Severe hyponatremia c Hypovolemia 96 Hypotonic fluids (0.45% NS) treat: a Fluid overload b Cellular dehydration (DKA) c Increased intracranial pressure 97 NEVER give hypotonic fluids to: a Patients with increased intracranial pressure b DKA patients c Hypernatremic patients 98 First priority assessment for IV therapy: a Check weight only b Check site for infiltration & phlebitis c Ask patient to self-monitor 99 Sign of hypernatremia: a Diarrhea b Bradycardia c Extreme thirst + confusion 100 Sign of hypocalcemia: a Warm skin b Trousseau’s & Chvostek’s signs c Hypertension

Fundamentals of Nursing

Froggy Jumps

About this activity

Created by

Download the paper version to play

Top Games

Froggy Jumps

Ethos, Pathos, and Logos Quiz

Froggy Jumps

Phlebotomy Order of Draw Quiz

Froggy Jumps

pizza

Froggy Jumps

The Integumentary System

Froggy Jumps

Bill of Rights Game - The Constitutionalist

Froggy Jumps

Fundamentals of NursingOnline version

by Ajebasare Miracle

Maslow’s Hierarchy: Which level involves basic survival needs?

What is the first step of the nursing process?

Which PPE is removed first when doffing?

Which hand hygiene method kills Clostridium difficile?

The primary purpose of a nursing diagnosis is to…

What is the correct order for removing PPE?

Which nursing action is independent?

What is the proper patient position for preventing aspiration?

What is the safest transfer method for a weak patient?

Which item is included in standard precautions?

What type of isolation is used for tuberculosis?

What is the normal range for adult respiratory rate?

What is the primary goal of infection control?

Which action is part of therapeutic communication?

Which action prevents pressure ulcers?

What is the safest method to identify a patient?

Which term means the nurse and patient work together toward goals?

What is the first action if a patient falls?

What is important when documenting?

Which level includes maintaining body temperature and fluid balance?

Seeking respect and autonomy belongs to which level?

Which need is addressed when helping a patient develop purpose?

A nurse collects subjective & objective data. Which step?

Writing SMART goals belongs to which step?

Turning a patient every 2 hours is which step?

Determining whether goals were met is which step?

Identifying patient responses such as “acute pain” is which step?

“Tell me more about how you feel” is an example of:

A nurse remains silent to allow patient reflection. This is:

“I hear that you are worried about the surgery” is:

Which precaution requires a negative-pressure room?

Which PPE is required for droplet precautions?

What pathogen is alcohol sanitiser NOT effective against?

Best way to prevent catheter-associated UTIs?

Which is removed first when doffing PPE?

Which is applied last when donning PPE?

Best position to prevent aspiration?

Best position for hypotensive shock?

Which position is used for enemas?

A weak, thready pulse indicates:

Which pulse is checked before cardiac meds (digoxin)?

Which temperature route is MOST accurate?

Which factor increases BP?

Which entry is correct legal documentation?

Incident reports are used to:

Which is objective data?

Best teaching strategy for new diagnosis:

Best way to confirm understanding:

For elderly patients, teaching should include:

Obtaining informed consent is responsibility of:

Which action violates confidentiality?

Ethical principle of “doing good” is:

Ethical principle of truth-telling:

Oral care for unconscious patient requires:

Sign of dehydration:

Hyperkalemia causes:

Hyponatremia causes:

Serous drainage looks:

Sign of wound infection:

First step before ambulating a patient:

Which blood component is used to increase hemoglobin rapidly?