HIV/AIDS Microbiology Quiz

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Test your HIV/AIDS knowledge.

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Quader Ahmed Jalili

India

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HIV/AIDS Microbiology Quiz


Froggy Jumps HIV/AIDS Microbiology QuizOnline version Test your HIV/AIDS knowledge. by Quader Ahmed Jalili 1 What is the genus of HIV? a Rhinovirus b Lentivirus c Deltaretrovirus 2 Which envelope glycoprotein is the main receptor-binding protein of HIV? a gp41 b gp160 c gp120 3 Which co-receptors assist HIV entry into cells? a CXCR4 and CCR5 b CCR3 and CXCR3 c CD8 and CD28 4 Which mutation can block HIV entry into cells? a ACE2-Δ12 b CCR5-Δ32 c CXCR4-Δ32 5 What is the size range of the HIV particle? a 200–300 nm b 80–110 nm c 10–20 nm 6 Which gene codes for the viral enzymes reverse transcriptase, integrase, and protease? a gag b env c pol 7 Which gene codes for the envelope glycoprotein cleaved into gp120 and gp41? a gag b env c pol 8 What are the three structural HIV genes? a vif, vpr, vpu b gag, pol, env c tat, rev, nef 9 Which stage is characterized by a high CD4 T cell decline and opportunistic infections? a Acute retroviral syndrome b AIDS c Clinical latency 10 Which stage is often called clinical latency? a AIDS b Acute HIV disease c Asymptomatic stage 11 What is a key feature of HIV antigenic variation? a High mutation rate in env gene b Mutations only in gag c Stable genome with no mutation 12 Which HIV serotype is most globally dominant? a HIV-2 group O b HIV-1 group N c HIV-1 group M 13 Which serotypes are primarily involved in Africa and some other regions? a HIV-1 B–D b HIV-3 A–H c HIV-2 A–H 14 Which diagnostic test is best during the window period? a ELISA b p24 only test c RNA detection (RT-PCR) 15 What does p24 antigen detection help with? a Diagnosing Hepatitis C b Window period and late-stage HIV c Pregnancy testing 16 What is the common testing algorithm for HIV diagnosis in many settings? a Single test is enough b Screening test followed by confirmatory tests c Only culture-based testing 17 What is the first-line ART regimen in many guidelines (TLD)? a Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Efavirenz b Abacavir + Zidovudine + Protease inhibitors c Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Dolutegravir 18 Which biomarker is commonly used to monitor HIV therapy response? a Glucose b Hemoglobin c HIV RNA (viral load) 19 Which cell type is the primary target for HIV infection? a Neutrophils b CD4+ T cells c B cells 20 What is the main mode of HIV transmission worldwide? a Waterborne b Airborne c Sexual contact 21 What is the least common but most efficient transmission route historically? a Insect bites b Blood products transfusion c Oral ingestion 22 What is perinatal HIV transmission risk without intervention? a 0% b 90% c 20–40% 23 Which clinical feature is typical of AIDS-related complex (ARC)? a Unexplained weight loss and night sweats b Persistent fever for 1 day c Acute rash only 24 Which solvent receptor binds gp120 in HIV entry? a CCR5 receptor only b Insulin receptor c CD4 receptor 25 Which two co-receptors are used by HIV? (select best pair) a CD8 and CD28 b CCR3 and CXCR3 c CXCR4 and CCR5 26 Which genome mutation drives resistance and diversity in HIV? a Mutation in env gene b Mutation in gag only c No mutation occurs 27 Which immune cell type is critical for cytotoxic response to HIV? a B cells b Neutrophils c CD8+ T cells 28 Which molecule does gp120 bind to initiate infection? a CD4 b CXCR4 c CCR5 29 What does HIV latency refer to? a Immediate symptom onset b Virus elimination c Persistent infection with no clinical symptoms 30 Which diagnostic test is used to determine HIV exposure in infants? a Western blot b DNA PCR c Standard ELISA 31 What is the window period in HIV diagnosis? a Time from symptoms to recovery b Time to start ART c Time from infection to detectable antibodies 32 Which drug class is used in ART to suppress replication? a Antiretrovirals b Antibiotics c Antifungals 33 What does NACO stand for? a New AIDS Clinical Organization b National Association of Cannabis Officers c National AIDS Control Organisation 34 Which organ system is most affected by HIV during OIs? a Musculoskeletal only b Respiratory (e.g., Pneumocystis jirovecii) c Renal only 35 Which opportunistic infection is most common globally in HIV? a Malaria b Herpes zoster only c Tuberculosis 36 What is the function of nef gene in HIV? a Regulatory, affects replication and pathogenesis b Enzyme for hair growth c Structural envelope protein 37 What is the role of tat gene in HIV? a Host receptor b Transcriptional transactivator c Structural core protein 38 Which test detects HIV RNA directly? a RT-PCR b ELISA c Western blot 39 What is the target outcome of ART? a No change in CD4 b Increased viral load c Sustained viral load reduction 40 Which immune marker helps assess HIV progression risk? a Platelet count b CD4 T cell count c Hemoglobin level 41 Which protein forms the HIV matrix core? a p55 precursor (gag) b p24 only c gp120 42 Which event marks the end of acute HIV infection? a Immediate AIDS onset b Primary viremia peaks and CD4 drop c Viremia never occurs 43 What does p24 antibody typically indicate over time? a Early infection marker that may decline later b No diagnostic value c Late infection only 44 Which region has high HIV prevalence according to the slides? a Sub-Saharan Africa b Central Australia c Northern Europe 45 What is the role of DC-SIGN in HIV? a Facilitates transport by dendritic cells b Blocks infection c Replaces CD4 receptor 46 Which CD4 threshold is commonly associated with AIDS-defining illnesses? a Less than 200 cells/µL b 2500 cells/µL c Greater than 500 cells/µL 47 Which drug combination is a fixed-dose first-line in ART? a ABC/3TC/LPV/r b TDF/3TC/DTG c AZT/3TC/EFV 48 Which prophylaxis is used for Pneumocystis pneumonia in HIV? a Cotrimoxazole preventive therapy b Fluconazole c Azithromycin 49 What is the primary target for HIV vaccines? a Gag proteins only b Env proteins c Host cells only 50 Which diagnostic method is best for confirming HIV during window period? a RNA detection (RT-PCR) b Only p24 antigen test c Single ELISA test 51 What is a key feature of HIV quasispecies? a Single, identical virus b Only bacterial contaminants c Group of closely related viral variants 52 Which marker is used to monitor antiretroviral therapy response besides RNA? a Creatinine clearance b Glucose level c CD4 count 53 What is the HIV genome primarily composed of? a Single-stranded RNA b Double-stranded RNA c Double-stranded DNA 54 Which stage may last up to 30 years in some patients? a Acute infection b Asymptomatic (clinical latency) c AIDS 55 Which surveillance program is mentioned for HIV screening in donors? a NACO Strategy I b Strategy IV c No screening 56 Which is a non-structural HIV gene group? a tat, nef, rev b gag, pol, env c gp120, gp41, p24 57 Which receptor is primarily expressed on helper T cells for HIV entry? a CXCR4 only b CCR5 c CD4 58 What is the target of HIV-1 gp120 binding? a CCR5 only b CD4 receptor c CD8 receptor 59 Which of the following is a common HIV opportunistic infection marker? a Liver fluke infection b Tuberculosis coinfection c Common cold only 60 What does the term 'serotyping' refer to in HIV? a Classification by symptoms only b Classification by env gene serotypes c Classification by patient age 61 What is the CDC classification used for HIV? a Nine-stage system b Four-stage system c Two-stage system 62 Which product is used to prevent neonatal HIV exposure? a Nevirapine prophylaxis b Insulin therapy c Tamiflu prophylaxis 63 Which molecule on HIV is involved in fusion with the host cell? a gp41 b gp160 c gp120 only 64 What does RT-PCR detect in HIV testing? a HIV RNA b Antibodies c HIV DNA only 65 Which is NOT a primary goal of ART? a Cure HIV completely b Reduce viral load c Prolong life 66 Which stage is characterized by lymphadenopathy in many patients? a Asymptomatic stage b Acute retroviral syndrome c Persistent Generalized Lymphadenopathy (PGL) 67 What is the primary target of p24 antigen testing? a Early infection and monitoring b Renal function only c Chronic liver disease 68 Which region has the highest HIV prevalence historically? a Sub-Saharan Africa b South America c Northern Europe 69 Which test uses antigens to detect HIV antibodies? a Gram stain b ELISA c PCR only 70 What is a common NACO strategy for HIV diagnosis? a Use multiple tests with different principles b No testing required c Use a single test only 71 What is the main challenge in developing an HIV vaccine? a Extensive antigenic diversity and env variability b Lack of target cells c Virus stability prevents mutation 72 What is a typical symptom set of AIDS-related Complex? a No symptoms ever b Localized rash only c Fever, weight loss, night sweats 73 Which protein is the fusion protein in HIV? a gp160 b gp120 c gp41 74 During window period, which test may be positive earliest? a Western blot b HIV RNA (RT-PCR) c 4th generation ELISA 75 Which is a primary example of an opportunistic infection in HIV? a Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia b Common flu c Streptococcal pharyngitis 76 What is the function of vif, vpr, vpu genes? a Accessory regulatory genes b Structural core genes c Envelope proteins 77 Which factor influences HIV transmission risk via sexual contact? a Type of sexual activity and viral load b Blood type c Hair color 78 What does NACO Strategy III target? a Diagnosis of asymptomatic HIV and antenatal screening b Diabetes screening c Only symptomatic testing 79 What is the role of p55 in gag? a Envelope formation b Enzyme catalysis c Matrix precursor cleaved into multiple proteins 80 Which is true about HIV latency duration? a May last 10 years or more b Always less than 1 year c Never occurs 81 Which ART component is Dolutegravir? a Protease inhibitor b Reverse transcriptase inhibitor c Integrase inhibitor 82 Which marker remains long-lasting antibodies in most assays? a IgA b IgG c IgM 83 Which molecule helps HIV enter Langerhans cells? a MHC I b CD28 c DC-SIGN 84 What is a common early HIV diagnosis marker? a CD4 count only b p24 antigen c Hemagglutinin 85 Which statement about HIV serotypes is correct? a HIV-1 & HIV-2 exist; env defines serotypes b Serotypes are irrelevant c Only one HIV type exists 86 Which condition is not an HIV-Associated Opportunistic Infection example? a Malaria b Candidiasis c Cryptococcal meningitis 87 Which component participates in HIV genome integration? a Reverse transcriptase only b Integrase c Protease

HIV/AIDS Microbiology Quiz

Froggy Jumps

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HIV/AIDS Microbiology QuizOnline version

by Quader Ahmed Jalili

What is the genus of HIV?

Which envelope glycoprotein is the main receptor-binding protein of HIV?

Which co-receptors assist HIV entry into cells?

Which mutation can block HIV entry into cells?

What is the size range of the HIV particle?

Which gene codes for the viral enzymes reverse transcriptase, integrase, and protease?

Which gene codes for the envelope glycoprotein cleaved into gp120 and gp41?

What are the three structural HIV genes?

Which stage is characterized by a high CD4 T cell decline and opportunistic infections?

Which stage is often called clinical latency?

What is a key feature of HIV antigenic variation?

Which HIV serotype is most globally dominant?

Which serotypes are primarily involved in Africa and some other regions?

Which diagnostic test is best during the window period?

What does p24 antigen detection help with?

What is the common testing algorithm for HIV diagnosis in many settings?

What is the first-line ART regimen in many guidelines (TLD)?

Which biomarker is commonly used to monitor HIV therapy response?

Which cell type is the primary target for HIV infection?

What is the main mode of HIV transmission worldwide?

What is the least common but most efficient transmission route historically?

What is perinatal HIV transmission risk without intervention?

Which clinical feature is typical of AIDS-related complex (ARC)?

Which solvent receptor binds gp120 in HIV entry?

Which two co-receptors are used by HIV? (select best pair)

Which genome mutation drives resistance and diversity in HIV?

Which immune cell type is critical for cytotoxic response to HIV?

Which molecule does gp120 bind to initiate infection?

What does HIV latency refer to?

Which diagnostic test is used to determine HIV exposure in infants?

What is the window period in HIV diagnosis?

Which drug class is used in ART to suppress replication?

What does NACO stand for?

Which organ system is most affected by HIV during OIs?

Which opportunistic infection is most common globally in HIV?

What is the function of nef gene in HIV?

What is the role of tat gene in HIV?

Which test detects HIV RNA directly?

What is the target outcome of ART?

Which immune marker helps assess HIV progression risk?

Which protein forms the HIV matrix core?

Which event marks the end of acute HIV infection?

What does p24 antibody typically indicate over time?

Which region has high HIV prevalence according to the slides?

What is the role of DC-SIGN in HIV?

Which CD4 threshold is commonly associated with AIDS-defining illnesses?

Which drug combination is a fixed-dose first-line in ART?

Which prophylaxis is used for Pneumocystis pneumonia in HIV?

What is the primary target for HIV vaccines?

Which diagnostic method is best for confirming HIV during window period?

What is a key feature of HIV quasispecies?

Which marker is used to monitor antiretroviral therapy response besides RNA?

What is the HIV genome primarily composed of?

Which stage may last up to 30 years in some patients?

Which surveillance program is mentioned for HIV screening in donors?

Which is a non-structural HIV gene group?

Which receptor is primarily expressed on helper T cells for HIV entry?

What is the target of HIV-1 gp120 binding?

Which of the following is a common HIV opportunistic infection marker?

What does the term 'serotyping' refer to in HIV?

What is the CDC classification used for HIV?