Bio A level quiz all topics

Froggy Jumps

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test you bio knowledge

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Cal kent

United Kingdom

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Bio A level quiz all topics


Froggy Jumps Bio A level quiz all topicsOnline version test you bio knowledge by Cal kent 1 Why is DNA described as a polynucleotide? a It contains multiple amino acids b It consists of many nucleotides joined by phosphodiester bonds c 2 In a colorimeter experiment for glucose concentration, why is distilled water used first? a To dissolve the glucose b To calibrate the colorimeter to zero absorbance c o increase the reaction rate 3 In thin layer chromatography of amino acids, separation occurs because: a Amino acids dissolve differently in water b Amino acids interact differently with silica due to hydrogen bonding c 4 Why is glycogen more branched than amylopectin? a Animals require slower glucose release b Animals require rapid glucose release for movement c Plants require faster glucose release 5 Why is cellulose unable to coil like starch? a It contains alpha-glucose molecules b Beta-glucose molecules are inverted forming straight chains with hydrogen bonds c 6 Which property allows haemoglobin to transport oxygen? a Four haem prosthetic groups containing Fe²⁺ b A long fibrous structure c Large numbers of peptide bonds 7 Globular proteins are typically: a Insoluble structural proteins b Spherical and involved in metabolic functions c Long fibrous proteins forming connective tissue 8 Which bond is strongest in maintaining tertiary structure? a Hydrogen bonds b Ionic bonds c Disulphide bonds 9 The alpha helix and beta pleated sheet structures occur at which level? a Primary b Secondary c Tertiary 10 Which level of protein structure is determined by the sequence of amino acids? a Primary structure b Secondary structure c Quaternary structure 11 A peptide bond forms during: a Hydrolysis between amino acids b Condensation between amino acids c Oxidation between proteins 12 Which lipid is a sterol with a ring structure? a Cholesterol b Triglyceride c Phospholipid 13 Which property of phospholipids allows membranes to form bilayers? a Two hydrophilic heads b Hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tails c Three fatty acid chains 14 What distinguishes unsaturated fatty acids from saturated ones? a Presence of one or more C=C double bonds b Absence of hydrogen atoms c Presence of phosphate groups 15 Why are triglycerides good energy storage molecules? a They are polar molecules b They have a high carbon-to-hydrogen ratio c They dissolve easily in water 16 Which ion plays a key role in muscle contraction? a Na⁺ b Ca²⁺ c Cl⁻ 17 Which characteristic distinguishes prokaryotic cells from eukaryotic cells? a DNA arranged as a single circular molecule b Presence of membrane-bound organelles c Large 80S ribosomes 18 Which part of the chloroplast contains the enzymes for photosynthesis? a Thylakoid membranes only b Stroma c Granum membrane 19 The tonoplast refers to: a The membrane surrounding the nucleus b The membrane surrounding the vacuole c The membrane of the mitochondrion 20 Which structure maintains turgor pressure in plant cells? a Chloroplast b Vacuole containing cell sap c Golgi apparatus 21 During protein secretion, what happens after proteins enter the Golgi apparatus? a They are degraded immediately b They are modified and packaged into secretory vesicles c They are converted into lipids 22 Which organelle modifies and packages proteins into vesicles? a Golgi apparatus b Mitochondrion c Lysosome 23 Why does the rough endoplasmic reticulum have a large surface area for protein synthesis? a It contains enzymes for respiration b Ribosomes are attached to its surface c It stores large quantities of proteins 24 Which function is associated with the smooth endoplasmic reticulum? a Protein synthesis b Lipid and carbohydrate synthesis c Ribosome production 25 What is the main functional difference between flagella and cilia? a Flagella move cells, while cilia move substances across cell surfaces b Flagella are stationary while cilia provide motility c Flagella only occur in plant cells 26 Centrioles play a key role in: a Protein modification b Spindle fibre organisation during cell division c ATP production 27 The main function of intermediate filaments is to: a Generate ATP b Provide mechanical strength and maintain cell integrity c Control protein synthesis 28 Why do microtubules have polarity? a Because they contain actin filaments b Because they have plus and minus ends allowing motor proteins to move along them c Because they form hydrogen bonds between proteins 29 Which cytoskeleton component is primarily responsible for cell contraction and movement? a Microfilaments made of actin b Microtubules made of tubulin c Intermediate fibres made of keratin 30 Lysosomes are important in cells because they: a Produce ATP b Contain hydrolytic enzymes that break down waste materials c Synthesize ribosomes 31 Which statement best describes the role of mitochondria? a Production of ATP through aerobic respiration b Storage of digestive enzymes c Modification of proteins 32 The nucleolus is primarily responsible for: a DNA replication b Ribosome production using rRNA and proteins c Protein secretion from the cell 33 Which structure allows substances to move between the nucleus and cytoplasm? a Nuclear pores in the nuclear envelope b Ribosomes attached to the nucleus c The nucleolus membrane 34 Why are biological membranes described as selectively permeable? a They allow all molecules to pass freely through the phospholipid bilayer b They control which substances enter and leave the cell or organelles c They prevent all ions from crossing the membrane 35 What does a shorter wavelength in electron microscopy enable? a Color imaging b Greater depth c Higher resolution 36 Artefacts in microscopy are structures caused by what? a Natural tissue b Lighting conditions c Sample preparation 37 Which microscope transmits electrons through the specimen to form an image? a Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) b Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM) c Light Microscope 38 Which microscope scans the surface to produce a 3D image? a Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) b TEM c Confocal Microscope 39 For electron microscopes, specimens must be in what state? a In air at room temperature b Living in water c Non-living and in vacuum 40 Which is generally cheaper and easier to operate: light or electron microscope? a Laser scanning confocal b Light microscope c Electron microscope 41 What magnification range is typical for an electron microscope? a 500,000x b 200x c 1,000x 42 What is the resolution of TEM in nanometers? a 0.5 nm b 50 nm c 5 nm 43 What is the resolution range for scanning electron microscopes (SEM)? a 3-10 nm b 100 nm c 0.5 nm 44 How does confocal laser scanning microscopy create high resolution? a Unfiltered emission from sample b Direct white light imaging c Fluorescent dye is excited and detected through a pinhole 45 Which slide prep suspends specimens in liquid before viewing? a Dry mount b Calibrated mount c Wet mount 46 What is the purpose of a cover slip in a dry mount? a To add color b To cover and protect the specimen c To fix the slide permanently 47 Which dye is commonly used as a background stain in negative staining? a Methylene blue b Crystal violet c Nigrosin 48 In Gram staining, which type retains crystal violet? a Both retain equally b Gram-positive bacteria c Gram-negative bacteria 49 What is the main effect of fixing specimens? a Destroy cells b Stain color c Preserve structure 50 What does calibration of the eyepiece graticule measure? a Color depth b Staining intensity c Structure dimensions 51 Which wavelength concept is associated with electron microscopes? a Shorter wavelength than light b Longer wavelength than light c Same wavelength as light 52 Which image type does scanning electron microscopy produce? a Internal cross-section b 3D surface image c Flat 2D plan 53 What is the key difference between contrast and resolution? a Contrast = magnification b Contrast = brightness difference c Contrast = color hue 54 Which statement about light vs electron microscopy is true? a Electron is lighter and easier b Light is cheaper and portable c Light requires vacuum 55 Which property of the phosphate group contributes to DNA's chemical behaviour? a It is positively charged and basic b It is negatively charged and acidic c It is neutral and hydrophobic 56 Which feature distinguishes DNA from RNA a DNA contains ribose sugar b DNA contains thymine while RNA contains uracil c 57 Which statement about RNA is correct? a It stores long-term genetic information b It contains deoxyribose sugar c It transfers genetic information and helps form ribosomes 58 How are nucleotides joined together in nucleic acids? a Hydrogen bonds between sugars b Phosphodiester bonds between the 5′ phosphate and 3′ hydroxyl group c Peptide bonds between bases 59 Which base belongs to the pyrimidine group? a Adenine b Cytosine c Guanine 60 Which bases are purines? a Adenine and guanine b Cytosine and thymine c Thymine and uracil 61 Why do G-C base pairs provide greater stability than A-T pairs? a They contain larger bases b They form three hydrogen bonds instead of two c 62 The double helix structure of DNA is stabilised primarily by: a Ionic bonds between sugars b Hydrogen bonds between complementary bases c Peptide bonds between nucleotides 63 What does antiparallel DNA strands mean? a Both strands run in the same 5' → 3' direction b One strand runs 5' → 3' while the other runs 3' → 5' c DNA strands are identical 64 Why is detergent added during DNA extraction? a To break hydrogen bonds in DNA b To dissolve cell membranes and release contents c to break phosphodiester bonds 65 What is the purpose of protease in DNA extraction? a Break down proteins associated with DNA b Break down nucleotides c Break hydrogen bonds in DNA 66 Why does DNA precipitate when ethanol is added? a DNA is insoluble in ethanol b Ethanol breaks phosphodiester bonds c Ethanol digests proteins 67 DNA replication is described as semi-conservative because: a DNA strands break into fragments b Each new molecule contains one original strand and one new strand c Only half of the DNA is copied 68 Which enzyme breaks hydrogen bonds between DNA strands? a DNA polymerase b DNA helicase c Ligase 69 Which enzyme forms phosphodiester bonds during replication? a DNA helicase b DNA polymerase c RNA polymerase 70 Why are Okazaki fragments formed? a DNA polymerase only works in the 5' → 3' direction b DNA helicase moves too slowly c DNA ligase cannot form bonds quickly 71 Which statement correctly describes prokaryotic DNA? a Linear and associated with histones b Circular and not associated with proteins c Located in a membrane-bound nucleus 72 What is a genome? a All proteins produced by a cell b The entire genetic material of an organism c A single chromosome 73 What is a proteome? a All genes in an organism b All proteins that can be produced from a genome c The DNA inside mitochondria 74 What is a codon? a A sequence of two nucleotides b A sequence of three nucleotides coding for an amino acid c A protein-binding site on DNA 75 Why is the genetic code described as degenerate? a Codons overlap each other b Multiple codons can code for the same amino acid c Only one codon codes for each amino acid 76 Which statement describes exons? a DNA sequences that code for amino acids b Non-coding DNA removed during splicing c RNA sequences found in ribosomes 77 ATP consists of: a Three phosphates, ribose, and adenine b Two phosphates, deoxyribose, and adenine c Three phosphates, glucose, and adenine 78 What type of reaction converts ATP → ADP? a Condensation b Hydrolysis c Oxidation 79 Why is ATP considered an immediate energy source? a It stores large amounts of energy long term b Energy is released rapidly when the terminal phosphate bond is broken c It is stored in fat tissue 80 Why must RNA act as an intermediate between DNA and proteins? a DNA cannot code for proteins directly b DNA is too large and must remain protected in the nucleus c RNA contains more bases 81 Which enzyme catalyses the formation of RNA during transcription? a DNA polymerase b RNA polymerase c DNA ligase 82 What process converts pre-mRNA into mature mRNA? a Replication b Splicing c Translation 83 Where does translation occur? a Nucleus b Ribosomes c Golgi apparatus 84 What is the role of tRNA? a Carry amino acids to the ribosome b Store genetic information c 85 What type of bond forms between amino acids during translation? a Hydrogen bond b Peptide bond c Glycosidic bond 86 Enzymes increase reaction rate primarily by: a Increasing temperature b Lowering activation energy c Increasing substrate concentration 87 Which model explains enzyme specificity more accurately than the lock-and-key model? a Fluid mosaic model b Induced fit model c Random collision model 88 Why does an enzyme have substrate specificity? a The tertiary structure of the active site is complementary to the substrate b The enzyme contains DNA c The enzyme has many peptide bonds 89 What is a cofactor? a A substance required for an enzyme to function properly b A permanently attached organic molecule c A protein that breaks down enzymes 90 What distinguishes a prosthetic group from a coenzyme? a Prosthetic groups bind permanently to the enzyme b Prosthetic groups are always organic c Prosthetic groups never affect enzyme activity 91 Which molecule acts as a prosthetic group in carbonic anhydrase? a Zn²⁺ b Cl⁻ c Fe³⁺ 92 A competitive inhibitor works by: a Binding to the active site instead of the substrate b Destroying the enzyme c Binding permanently to the substrate 93 A non-competitive inhibitor affects enzyme activity by: a Blocking the substrate completely b Binding to an allosteric site and altering the active site shape c Increasing substrate concentration 94 Why does enzyme activity decrease above the optimum temperature? a Substrates become inactive b The enzyme becomes denatured c ATP concentration decreases 95 Why does increasing substrate concentration eventually stop increasing reaction rate? a Enzymes become saturated with substrate b Substrate becomes toxic c 96 Why does increasing enzyme concentration increase reaction rate? a More active sites are available for substrate binding b Substrates become smaller c Enzymes break into fragments 97 What does a Q10 value of 2 indicate? a Reaction rate doubles for every 10°C increase b Reaction rate halves for every 10°C increase c Temperature does not affect reaction rate 98 What is a cofactor? a A protein that breaks down substrates b A non-protein helper required for enzyme function c A lipid involved in respiration 99 A coenzyme differs from a cofactor because it is a Permanent b Inorganic c Organic 100 Which vitamin is used to make coenzyme A? a Vitamin c b vitamin D c vitimin B5 101 Prosthetic groups are best described as a Temporary enzyme inhibitors b Permanently attached cofactors c Digestive enzymes 102 A precursor enzyme is also called a a Holoenzyme b Apoenzyme c 103 Precursor enzymes become active due to changes in a Primary structure b Secondary structure c Tertiary structure 104 Which process is controlled using precursor enzymes? a Photosynthesis b Blood clotting c 105 The plasma membrane is mainly composed of a Triglycerides b Cellulose c Phospholipids and proteins 106 Glycoproteins are a Proteins attached to carbohydrate chains b Lipids attached to proteins c Sugars attached to DNA 107 Glycolipids and glycoproteins are important for a ATP synthesis only b Adhesion and recognition c DNA replication 108 Cholesterol helps membranes by a Destroying phospholipids b Increasing protein synthesis c 109 At high temperatures, membranes become a More rigid b Less permeable c More fluid and permeable 110 Organic solvents damage membranes because they a Freeze phospholipids b Dissolve the phospholipid bilayer c Denature DNA 111 In the fluid mosaic model, phospholipids are described as a Fixed and rigid b Fluid and moving c Crystalline 112 The hydrophilic part of a phospholipid is the a Fatty acid tails b Phosphate head c Cholesterol 113 Which factor affects membrane structure? a Temperature b Alcohol and solvents c all of the above 114 Beetroot permeability experiments use which pigment? a Chlorophyll B b Haemoglobin c Betalain 115 A colorimeter is used in the beetroot experiment to measure a Temperature b Pigment release c pH 116 Passive transport requires: a ATP b Metabolic energy c No metabolic energy 117 Diffusion is the movement of particles a Against the concentration gradient b From low to high concentration c From high to low concentration 118 Facilitated diffusion uses a ATP only b Carrier or channel proteins c Ribosomes 119 Water potential describes: a ATP production b Tendency of water molecules to move c Rate of respiration 120 The more dilute a solution is, the water potential is a Lower b More positive c More negative 121 Active transport moves substances: a Down a concentration gradient b Across impermeable membranes only c Against a concentration gradient 122 Active transport requires a ATP and carrier proteins b ATP only c Carrier proteins only 123 Bulk transport into cells is called a Exocytosis b Endocytosis c Osmosis 124 Bulk transport out of cells is called a Exocytosis b Endocytosis c Facilitated diffusion 125 During active transport, ATP is hydrolysed into a ADP and glucose b ADP and Pi c AMP and phosphate 126 Binding of phosphate to a carrier protein causes a Denaturation b A shape change c Diffusion 127 A hypotonic solution has a Lower water potential than the cell b Equal water potential c Higher water potential than the cell 128 In a hypertonic solution, water a Moves into the cell b Moves out of the cell c Does not move 129 In an isotonic solution a Cells burst b Cells shrink c There is no net water movement 130 Potato core osmosis experiments measure: a ATP production b Percentage mass change c DNA replication 131 Mitosis produces a Four genetically different cells b Two genetically identical cells c Haploid cells only 132 Mitosis is important for a Respiration b Growth and repair c Fertilisation 133 DNA replication occurs during a G1 b G2 c S phase

Bio A level quiz all topics

Froggy Jumps

About this activity

Created by

Download the paper version to play

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Bio A level quiz all topicsOnline version

by Cal kent

Why is DNA described as a polynucleotide?

In a colorimeter experiment for glucose concentration, why is distilled water used first?

In thin layer chromatography of amino acids, separation occurs because:

Why is glycogen more branched than amylopectin?

Why is cellulose unable to coil like starch?

Which property allows haemoglobin to transport oxygen?

Globular proteins are typically:

Which bond is strongest in maintaining tertiary structure?

The alpha helix and beta pleated sheet structures occur at which level?

Which level of protein structure is determined by the sequence of amino acids?

A peptide bond forms during:

Which lipid is a sterol with a ring structure?

Which property of phospholipids allows membranes to form bilayers?

What distinguishes unsaturated fatty acids from saturated ones?

Why are triglycerides good energy storage molecules?

Which ion plays a key role in muscle contraction?

Which characteristic distinguishes prokaryotic cells from eukaryotic cells?

Which part of the chloroplast contains the enzymes for photosynthesis?

The tonoplast refers to:

Which structure maintains turgor pressure in plant cells?

During protein secretion, what happens after proteins enter the Golgi apparatus?

Which organelle modifies and packages proteins into vesicles?

Why does the rough endoplasmic reticulum have a large surface area for protein synthesis?

Which function is associated with the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

What is the main functional difference between flagella and cilia?

Centrioles play a key role in:

The main function of intermediate filaments is to:

Why do microtubules have polarity?

Which cytoskeleton component is primarily responsible for cell contraction and movement?

Lysosomes are important in cells because they:

Which statement best describes the role of mitochondria?

The nucleolus is primarily responsible for:

Which structure allows substances to move between the nucleus and cytoplasm?

Why are biological membranes described as selectively permeable?

What does a shorter wavelength in electron microscopy enable?

Artefacts in microscopy are structures caused by what?

Which microscope transmits electrons through the specimen to form an image?

Which microscope scans the surface to produce a 3D image?

For electron microscopes, specimens must be in what state?

Which is generally cheaper and easier to operate: light or electron microscope?

What magnification range is typical for an electron microscope?

What is the resolution of TEM in nanometers?

What is the resolution range for scanning electron microscopes (SEM)?

How does confocal laser scanning microscopy create high resolution?

Which slide prep suspends specimens in liquid before viewing?

What is the purpose of a cover slip in a dry mount?

Which dye is commonly used as a background stain in negative staining?

In Gram staining, which type retains crystal violet?

What is the main effect of fixing specimens?

What does calibration of the eyepiece graticule measure?

Which wavelength concept is associated with electron microscopes?

Which image type does scanning electron microscopy produce?

What is the key difference between contrast and resolution?

Which statement about light vs electron microscopy is true?

Which property of the phosphate group contributes to DNA's chemical behaviour?

Which feature distinguishes DNA from RNA

Which statement about RNA is correct?

How are nucleotides joined together in nucleic acids?

Which base belongs to the pyrimidine group?

Which bases are purines?

Why do G-C base pairs provide greater stability than A-T pairs?