Which form of osteochondrosis affects primarily the lunate?
A.
keinbock's
B.
blount's
C.
freiburg's
D.
preiser's
2.
Which form of osteochondrosis affects primarily the medial tibial condyle?
A.
Blount's
B.
Freiberg's
C.
Preiser's
D.
osgood-schlatter's
3.
Which form of osteochondrosis affects primarily the femoral head?
A.
Legg Calve
B.
Preiser's
C.
osteochondritis dissecans
D.
Keinbock's
4.
Which form of osteochondrosis affects primarily the second metatarsal?
A.
Freiberg's
B.
Blount's
C.
Keinbock's
D.
Scheuermann's
5.
Which form of osteochondrosis affects primarily the scaphoid?
A.
Preiser's
B.
Blount's
C.
Freiberg's
D.
Keinbock's
6.
identify kienbock's
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.
identify freiberg's
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.
identify blount's
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.
Increases in trabeculation visible on xray is a hallmark of the following disease:
A.
Paget's
B.
Osteopenia
C.
Hodgkin's
D.
Blastic mets
10.
blade of grass deformity is a hallmark of which condition
A.
Paget's
B.
Osteochondrosis
C.
Lytic Mets
D.
RA
11.
multiple punched out lesions is an xray finding commonly associated with which disease
A.
Paget's
B.
Multiple Myeloma
C.
Lytic Metastasis
D.
RA
12.
One would expect which lab result in the multiple myeloma patient
A.
increased Alkaline phosphatase
B.
decresed alkaline phosphatase
C.
increased serum calcium
D.
decreased serum calcium
13.
A "gound glass" appearance is seen on radiographs when the following condition is suspected.
A.
multiple myeloma
B.
hodgkin's
C.
osteoporosis
D.
fibrous dysplasia
14.
A blown out appearance is commonly seen distally on bone films when this condition is present
A.
ABC
B.
UBC
C.
Giant Cell
D.
fibrous dysplasia
15.
expansile, soap bubble appearance is a radiographic hallmark of which of the following conditions?
A.
ABC
B.
Giant Cell
C.
UBC
D.
Blastic Mets
16.
Identify an ABC tumor
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.
Identify a the Giant cell tumor
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.
Identify a unicameral bone cyst
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.
Identify paget's disease
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.
Identify RA
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.
Identify RA
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.
Identify OA
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.
Identify OA
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.
Which condition is present on this film?
A.
psoriatic arthritis
B.
rheumatoid arthritis
C.
keinboch's
D.
osteoarthritis
25.
Which condition is present on this film?
A.
multiple myeloma
B.
paget's
C.
osteolytic metastasis
D.
osteoblastic metastasis
26.
Which condition is present on this film?
A.
Paget's disease
B.
Multiple Myeloma
C.
osteolytic metastasis
D.
osteoblastic metastasis
27.
Which condition is present on this film?
A.
Aneurysmal bone cyst
B.
Unicameral bone cyst
C.
Fibrous Dysplasia
D.
Giant Cell tumor
28.
Which condition is present on this film?
A.
Aneurysmal bone cyst
B.
Giant Cell tumor
C.
Unicameral bone cyst
D.
Fibrous Dysplasia
29.
Osteoarthritis tends to affect joints ____________
A.
symetrically
B.
asymetrically
30.
Laboratory findings present with OA might be (all that apply)
A.
ESR
B.
RF
C.
Normal
D.
HLAB27
31.
Kohler's disease is an avascular necrosis of the ___________
A.
navicular
B.
calcaneous
C.
lunate
D.
femoral head
32.
a pedunculated coulifower mass extending from a long bone is suggestive of:
A.
osteochonroma
B.
enchondroma
C.
osteoid osteoma
D.
chondrosarcoma
33.
Which of these represents osteoid osteoma?
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.
The vertical striations giving hemagioma its characteristic "courduroy cloth" appearance on film is due to:
A.
proliferation of blood vessels
B.
osteoblastic activity
C.
osteolytic activitiy
D.
parathormone imbalances
35.
Periosteal reactions are commonly present with which of the following malignant bone lesions? (all that apply)
A.
reticulum-cell sarcoma
B.
Ewing's sarcoma
C.
fibrosarcoma
D.
Osteosarcoma
36.
Which malignant bone lesion has a predication for metaphyseal location and is the most common primary bone tumor?
A.
Ewing's
B.
chondorsarcoma
C.
fibrosarcoma
D.
osteosarcoma
37.
Which malignant bone lesion causes anemia?
A.
multiple myeloma
B.
chondrosarcoma
C.
paget's
D.
osteosarcoma
38.
Which bone lesion is associated with a cotton wool appearance on film?
A.
paget's
B.
chondrosarcoma
C.
fibrosarcoma
D.
osteoblastic metastasis
39.
Which malignant bone lesion is more common in children and adolescents?
A.
Ewing's
B.
paget's
C.
osteoid osteoma
D.
chondrosarcoma
40.
An extrapural sign is indicative of which pathology?
A.
rib metastasis
B.
chondrosarcoma
C.
blastic metastasis
D.
ewing's
41.
Blastic metastatic disease is more likely to have spread from which primary tumor site? (all that apply)
A.
lung
B.
breast
C.
colon
D.
thyroid
42.
Lytic metastasis is more likely to have spread from which primary tumor site? (all that apply)
A.
lung
B.
breast
C.
colon
D.
kidney
43.
Which lesion is recognized by the fallen fragment sign?
A.
unicameral bone cyst
B.
fibrous cortical defect
C.
anyerismal bone cyst
D.
non ossifying fibroma
44.
a fibrous cortical defect is most likely seen in which bone?
A.
leg bones
B.
arm bones
C.
flat bones, ie scapula and pelvis
D.
small bones, ie carpals and tarsals
45.
Which of these lesions is fluid filled? all that apply.
A.
unicameral bone cyst
B.
simple bone cyst
C.
anyerismal bone cyst
D.
osteoid osteoma
46.
Name the condition that causes this radiographic finding
A.
osteomalacia
B.
Ricketts
C.
avascular necrosis
D.
osteoid osteoma
47.
Name this condition and the radiographic evidence present on the image.
A.
Fibrous Dysplasia
B.
Shepard's Crook
C.
Paget's
D.
Blade of Grass
48.
Name this condition.
A.
osteopetrosis
B.
osteopoikilosis
C.
ollier's disease
D.
RA
49.
Name this condition.
A.
osteopetrosis
B.
osteopoikilosis
C.
osteomylitis
D.
pott's disease
E.
osteopetrosis
50.
osteomylitis is most commonly caused by:
A.
Strep Infection
B.
Staph Infection
C.
Parathormone imbalance secondary to kidney disease
D.
Dietary deficiencies
51.
A moth eaten appearance is the hallmark of which bone pathology/pathologies?
A.
Osteomylitis
B.
rheumatoid arthritis
C.
osteolytic metastasis
D.
chondrosarcoma
52.
Name this condition.
A.
Osteomylitis
B.
Ewing's sarcoma
C.
Fibrous Dysplasia
D.
Fiberous cortical defect
53.
Name this sign.
54.
name this condition.
55.
DISH is more likely in a patient with:
A.
adult onset diabetes
B.
polycystic disease of the kidney
C.
thyroid and parathyroid pathology
D.
High blood pressure
56.
Make two selections: the disease illustrated, and the name of the sign visualized.
A.
charcot's joint
B.
neurotrophic arthropathy
C.
Gout
D.
Tophi formation
57.
Select the signs and symptoms that are consistent with Ankylosing Spondylitis
A.
bamboo spine
B.
shiny corner sign
C.
marginal syndesmophytes
D.
iritis
58.
Select two: the name of the condition and the name of the sign present on the film.
A.
osteoarthritis
B.
gull sign
C.
psoriatic arthritis
D.
pencil in cup deformity
59.
Name the condition.
60.
Name the condition
61.
Reiter's syndrome usually follows infection by:
A.
chlamydia
B.
gonnorhea
C.
syphilis
D.
prader willi
62.
Philip has a long standing chlamydia infection, and his doctor just developed this film. what other signs or symptoms should the doctor look for? (all that apply)
A.
metatarsalgia
B.
red eyes
C.
pale skin
D.
painful urination
63.
Gout sufferers can help control symptoms by limiting which of these foods. make the single best choice.
A.
canned or processed meats
B.
canned or processed beats
C.
cherries
D.
licorice
64.
This xray is seen and the obvious diagnosis made. Where else might it be normal for the patient to be experiencing localized acute pain?
