Cardiovascular & Perfusion

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Cardiovascular & Perfusion

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Kay

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Cardiovascular & Perfusion


Cardiovascular & PerfusionOnline version Cardiovascular & Perfusion by Kay 1 The LPN is providing teaching about risk factors for pericarditis. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching? a Recent flu-like illness b Thyroid disease c Sedentary lifestyle d Family history of pericarditis 2 What is the cause of pericarditis? a Your heart condition is caused by inflammation of the membranous sac around the heart. b Your heart condition is caused by narrowing of the coronary arteries. c Your heart condition is caused by thickening of the ventricular walls and septum. d Your heart condition is caused by excessive stretching of the ventricles. 3 Which of the following clients should the nurse understand is most at risk for developing hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)? a The client whose mother and uncle were diagnosed with this same condition b The client who is out of work and experiencing increased stress c The client who uses oxygen for obstructive sleep apnea d The client who has chronic venous insufficiency 4 Which of the following client statements indicates to the LPN an understanding of teaching for management of pericarditis? a “I will contact my provider if I have chest pain.” b “I should stop taking my medications once the pain improves.” c “I will need to increase my fluids to 3 liters per day.” d “I should refrain from sexual activity while taking colchicine.” 5 Which of the following findings should the LPN recognize as requiring immediate intervention for peripheral artery disease (PAD)? a Pain, pallor, and paresthesia in the foot b Brown discoloration around the ankles c Lower extremities edematous with decreased pulses and cool to the touch d Presence of an open wound near the ankle with serous drainage and pruritus 6 A client’s ECG strip shows a regular rhythm with a rate of 80/min. P waves are present before each QRS complex. How should the nurse interpret this rhythm? a Sinus rhythm b Sinus bradycardia c Atrial fibrillation d Ventricular tachycardia 7 A client’s ECG strip shows the following: •Heart rate: 92/min •Rhythm: Irregular •P waves: Unable to identify •PR interval: Unable to measure •QRS duration: 0.10 seconds Which rhythm should the nurse identify? a Atrial fibrillation b First-degree AV block c Supraventricular tachycardia d Sinus bradycardia 8 What is the cause of peripheral artery disease (PAD)? a Blood flow is altered due to atherosclerosis affecting tissue oxygenation. b Blood flow is altered due to incompetent valves causing increased venous pressure. c Blood flow is altered and causes blood to pool in the legs. d Blood flow is decreased due to inflammation of the pericardium. 9 Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include in teaching for PAD? a Body mass index (BMI) of 35 b Rheumatic fever c History of venous thrombosis d Chronic pulmonary disease 10 Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as a manifestation of peripheral venous disease? a Swollen and enlarged veins b Diminished hair growth on the lower extremities c Loss of pigmentation over the shin area d Shiny appearance to the lower extremities 11 Which procedure should the nurse anticipate for a client who has hypertrophic cardiomyopathy that has not improved with pharmacologic treatment? a Septal myectomy b Synchronized electrical cardioversion c Pericardiocentesis d Pericardial window 12 A client has sinus bradycardia on the cardiac monitor with a heart rate of 48/min. The client reports dizziness and lightheadedness. What is the nurse’s priority action? a Administer atropine as prescribed b Prepare the client for cardioversion c Encourage the client to take deep breaths and relax d Place the client in Trendelenburg position 13 Which statement explains the correlation between coronary artery changes and symptoms? a Coronary arteries decrease in diameter, leading to insufficient blood, oxygen, and nutrients reaching the heart muscle. b The heart and coronary arteries weaken, leading to poor perfusion. c The ventricles enlarge and increase systemic blood flow. d Venous valves become incompetent, causing blood pooling. 14 What is the cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy (RCM)? a Stiffening of the ventricular walls b Inflammation of the pericardial sac c Thickening of the ventricular walls and septum d Excessive stretching of the ventricles 15 Which of the following clients is at highest risk for developing atrial flutter? a A client who had a myocardial infarction and stent placement b A client recovering from vomiting and diarrhea c A client who is unemployed and stressed d A client with seasonal allergies 16 Which laboratory finding should the nurse identify as a possible cause of atrial fibrillation? a Elevated TSH b Elevated CRP c Elevated ESR d Elevated BNP 17 What treatment option should the nurse anticipate for a client who has mitral valve stenosis that has not responded to medication? a Balloon valvuloplasty using a catheter inserted through the groin b Administration of a heparin bolus c Coronary artery bypass graft surgery d Placement of a pacemaker 18 A nurse is collecting data on a client who has bradycardia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a Lightheadedness b Fluid volume deficit c Anxiety d Elevated temperature 19 A client has atrial fibrillation and reports dizziness and palpitations. What is the cause of these manifestations? a The heart’s electrical signals are rapid, chaotic, and irregular. b Electrical transmission through the AV node is unusually slow. c The ventricles are unable to contract. d Blood is pooling in the lower extremities. 20 What is a risk factor for developing atrial fibrillation? a History of thyroid disease b Recent influenza infection c Sedentary lifestyle d Family history of atrial fibrillation 21 Which client statement indicates an understanding of arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy and risk for sudden death? a “I will avoid competitive recreational sports.” b “I will probably become easily constipated.” c “I am aware that I may develop frequent hiccups.” d “I should increase my sodium intake daily.” 22 Which of the following should the nurse include in teaching for valvular heart disease? a Monitor for gradual onset of symptoms. b Monitor wounds on lower extremities. c Take antiplatelet medications as ordered. d Comply with compression therapy. 23 A client with atrial fibrillation reports palpitations, lightheadedness, and shortness of breath. Which procedure should the nurse anticipate? a Synchronized electrical cardioversion b Septal myectomy c Pericardiocentesis d Pericardial window 24 When documenting the quality of a client’s pulse with atrial fibrillation, which term should the nurse use? a Irregular b Bounding c Not palpable d Slow 25 What teaching should the nurse provide to a client with dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM)? a Your heart condition is caused by excessive stretching of the ventricles. b Your heart condition is caused by thickening of the ventricular walls and septum. c Your heart condition is caused by stiffening of the ventricular walls. d Your heart condition is caused by inflammation around the heart. 26 Which client statement should the nurse report to the provider as a potential safety concern for PAD? a “I need to walk slowly because I lose my balance often.” b “I don’t go out much because of the pain in my legs.” c “It makes me sad that I can’t keep up with my grandchildren.” d “My feet feel cold at night.” 27 Which client statement indicates understanding of teaching for management of peripheral venous disease? a “I will inspect my legs daily for changes in color, size, and temperature.” b “I will keep my legs in a dependent position.” c “I should avoid wearing compression stockings.” d “I will limit activity to prevent swelling.” 28 Which lifestyle modification should the nurse include in discharge teaching for heart failure? a Dietary and fluid restrictions b Cessation of hormonal supplements c Encouraging increased mobility d Cessation of IV drug use 29 A client has a pericardial effusion and develops hypotension and muffled heart sounds. Which procedure should the nurse anticipate? a Pericardiocentesis b Left ventricular assist device c Synchronized electrical cardioversion d Septal myectomy 30 A client on continuous cardiac monitoring is experiencing premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). Which finding should the nurse expect? a Irregular pulsations b Increased point of maximal impulse (PMI) c S3 heart sounds d Bradycardia

Cardiovascular & Perfusion

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Cardiovascular & PerfusionOnline version

by Kay

The LPN is providing teaching about risk factors for pericarditis. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

What is the cause of pericarditis?

Which of the following clients should the nurse understand is most at risk for developing hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)?

Which of the following client statements indicates to the LPN an understanding of teaching for management of pericarditis?

Which of the following findings should the LPN recognize as requiring immediate intervention for peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

A client’s ECG strip shows a regular rhythm with a rate of 80/min. P waves are present before each QRS complex. How should the nurse interpret this rhythm?

A client’s ECG strip shows the following: •Heart rate: 92/min •Rhythm: Irregular •P waves: Unable to identify •PR interval: Unable to measure •QRS duration: 0.10 seconds Which rhythm should the nurse identify?

What is the cause of peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include in teaching for PAD?

Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as a manifestation of peripheral venous disease?

Which procedure should the nurse anticipate for a client who has hypertrophic cardiomyopathy that has not improved with pharmacologic treatment?

A client has sinus bradycardia on the cardiac monitor with a heart rate of 48/min. The client reports dizziness and lightheadedness. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Which statement explains the correlation between coronary artery changes and symptoms?

What is the cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy (RCM)?

Which of the following clients is at highest risk for developing atrial flutter?

Which laboratory finding should the nurse identify as a possible cause of atrial fibrillation?

What treatment option should the nurse anticipate for a client who has mitral valve stenosis that has not responded to medication?

A nurse is collecting data on a client who has bradycardia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A client has atrial fibrillation and reports dizziness and palpitations. What is the cause of these manifestations?

What is a risk factor for developing atrial fibrillation?

Which client statement indicates an understanding of arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy and risk for sudden death?

Which of the following should the nurse include in teaching for valvular heart disease?

A client with atrial fibrillation reports palpitations, lightheadedness, and shortness of breath. Which procedure should the nurse anticipate?

When documenting the quality of a client’s pulse with atrial fibrillation, which term should the nurse use?

What teaching should the nurse provide to a client with dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM)?

Which client statement should the nurse report to the provider as a potential safety concern for PAD?

Which client statement indicates understanding of teaching for management of peripheral venous disease?

Which lifestyle modification should the nurse include in discharge teaching for heart failure?

A client has a pericardial effusion and develops hypotension and muffled heart sounds. Which procedure should the nurse anticipate?

A client on continuous cardiac monitoring is experiencing premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). Which finding should the nurse expect?